Commerce online quiz 232

By | August 21, 2018

10000 MCQ /questions on commerce questions answers

Question 1
The tax IGST charged by.....Government.
A
Central
B
State
C
Concerned department
D
Both a and b E. All a, b and c
Question 2
The interests and rights of customers are given top priority.
A
The Vendor Model
B
The Civic Model
C
The Austre Model
D
The Artistic Model
Question 3
Matching of Input Tax credit on inward supply by recipient is undertaken with
A
Monthly return filed by the supplier
B
Outward supply filed by the supplier
C
Invoices maintained by the supplier
D
None of the above
Question 4
Which type of adding machine provides a printed record?
A
Listing machine
B
Non-listing machine
C
Numbering machine
D
Stamping matching
Question 5
Short term sources are
A
Bank credit
B
Public deposit
C
Commercial papers
D
All of the above
Question 6
Cost accounting provides detailed information about.....of various products, processes, services and operations.
A
Costs
B
income
C
either a or b
D
none of these.
Question 7
The most common and easily understood type of Net marketplace is.....
A
e-procurement marketplace
B
e-distributors
C
industry consortia
D
independent exchanges
Question 8
The apex body of the Foreign Trade is:
A
The Central Government.
B
The State Government.
C
The Ministry of Commerce.
D
All the above.
Question 9
All of the following are metrics for e-mail campaigns except.....
A
open rate
B
delivery rate
C
bounce-back rate
D
cart conversion rate
Question 10
Which one is capital expenditure?
A
heavy repairs on used building,
B
expenses incurred on acquisition of machines,
C
Purchase of land for factory
D
all of these
Question 11
A patent grants the owner an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind the invention for..... years.
A
10
B
20
C
30
D
40
Question 12
The spot exchange rate.....
A
is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another for immediate delivery
B
is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific future date
C
is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific location on a specific future date
D
is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific location for immediate delivery
Question 13
Government grants related to income as per the Accounting Standard (AS)-12 should be-
A
Presented as a credit in the statement of Profit and Loss
B
Presented as a deferred income on the asset side of the balance sheet
C
Presented as a capital grant on the liability side of balance sheet
D
Presented both in the Profit and Loss statement and in the balance sheet
Question 14
Total number of RRBs now functioning is
A
84
B
98
C
112
D
154
Question 15
Costs are classified as fixed or variable on basis of
A
specific activity
B
given time period
C
common activity
D
both a and b
Question 16
Motivation-Hygiene Theory was propounded by-
A
Abraham H. Maslow
B
Fredrick Herzberg
C
Peter F. Druker
D
Argyris Chris
Question 17
Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled before a bank is included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act?
A
It must be a State co-operative bank or a company as defined in the Companies Act, 1956 or an institution notified by the Central Government in this behalf or a corporation or a company incorporated by or under any law in force in any place outside In
B
It must satisfy the Reserve Bank of India that its affairs are not being conducted in a manner detrimental to the interests of the depositors
C
It must have a paid-up capital and reserves of an aggregate value of
D
not less than Rs. 5 lakh(d) All of the above
Question 18
An estimate of future bad debt is called.....
A
provision for doubtful debts
B
debtors
C
uncollected debts
D
none of these
Question 19
If a general manager asks the sales manager to recruit some salesman on his behalf, it is an instance of.....
A
Division of authority
B
Decentralisation of authority
C
Delegation of authority
D
Delegation of responsibility
Question 20
The Communist Manifesto, written jointly by Marx and Engels's was published in
A
1843
B
1848
C
1853
D
1859
There are 20 questions to complete.

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