Commerce online quiz 247

By | August 21, 2018

10000 MCQ /questions on commerce questions answers

Question 1
What are the conditions applicable before claiming deemed exports?
A
Goods must be manufactured in India
B
Goods must not leave India
C
Goods must be notified by Central Government
D
All the above
Question 2
Risk per unit of return or stand alone risk is represented by
A
coefficient of standard
B
coefficient of return
C
coefficient of variation
D
coefficient of deviation
Question 3
Certain revenue and capital expenditure on scientific research are allowed as deduction in the previous year of commencement of business even if these are incurred
A
Five years immediately before the commencement of business
B
3 years immediately before the commencement of the business
C
Any time prior to the commencement of the business
D
None of the above
Question 4
Cumulative Preference share holders can claim unpaid dividend of earlier years as a matter of right only when?
A
There are sufficient profits
B
Company goes into winding up
C
There are sufficient liquid funds
D
Directors propose to distribute dividend to equity share holders before giving dividends to them
Question 5
Rate of return which is asked by investors is classified as
A
average cost of capital
B
mean cost of capital
C
weighted cost of capital
D
weighted average cost of capital
Question 6
Appropriate basis for apportionment of material handling charges is.....
A
material purchased
B
material in stock
C
material consumed
D
material wasted
Question 7
Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate "Cross Relationship" under span of control?
A
n (n-1)
B
n (2n/2-1)
C
n (2n/2 + n-1)
D
None of the above
Question 8
R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4, 00, 000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by-
A
Rs. 4, 00, 000
B
Rs. 5, 00, 000
C
Rs. 3, 20, 000
D
Rs. 4, 80, 000
Question 9
Unabsorbed depreciation which could not be set off in the same assessment year, can be carried forward for
A
8 Years
B
Indefinitely
C
4 Years
D
None of these
Question 10
A high portfolio return is subtracted from low portfolio return to calculate
A
HML portfolio
B
R portfolio
C
subtracted portfolio
D
ML portfolio
Question 11
What looks for people on the network who shouldn't be there or who are acting suspiciously?
A
Encryption
B
Public key encryption
C
Intrusion-detection software
D
Security-auditing software
Question 12
The parties to joint venture are called
A
Friends
B
Principal and agent
C
Partners
D
Co-ventures
Question 13
A major difference between real and nominal returns is that.....
A
real returns adjust for inflation and nominal returns do not
B
real returns use actual cash flows and nominal returns use expected cash flows
C
real returns adjust for commissions and nominal returns do not
D
real returns show the highest possible return and nominal returns show the lowest possible return
Question 14
Method uses for an estimation of cost of equity is classified as
A
market cash flow
B
future cash flow method
C
discounted cash flow method
D
present cash flow method
Question 15
..... is a legal document and can be used as a source of industrial information.
A
Report
B
Law Review
C
Patent
D
Specification
Question 16
Correlation between price and demand is
A
Negative
B
Positive
C
Zero
D
None of these
Question 17
If the marginal (additional) opportunity cost is a constant then the PPC would be
A
Straight line
B
Convex
C
Backward leading
D
Concave
Question 18
What is the due date for payment of tax?
A
Last day of the month to which payment relates
B
Within 10 days of the subsequent month
C
Within 20 days of the subsequent month
D
Within 15 days of the subsequent month
Question 19
Staffing includes
  1. Training
  2. Appraisal
  3. Placement
  4. Directing
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 20
Last step in developing operating budget is
A
implementing income
B
implementing decision
C
efficient implementation
D
effective implementation
There are 20 questions to complete.

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