Computer networking MCQ – Change your future

51. In Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), criterion of policy is set by

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Administrator.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CCNP, JNCIA, JNCIS

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: In BGP, the policy criteria are set by the network administrator to control how routes are selected and advertised.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that the system or user sets the policy criteria, but in BGP, these criteria are specifically defined by the administrator.

Explanations: The administrator of a network sets the policy criteria in BGP to control routing decisions. This includes defining rules for route selection, preference, and advertisement. The system and user do not have the authority to set these policies, as they are specific to network management and require administrative privileges.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The system does not set BGP policy criteria.
Option B: The user does not set BGP policy criteria.
Option C: The medium does not set BGP policy criteria.
Option D: The administrator sets BGP policy criteria.

Mnemonic: Admin BGP, not Sys or User.

52. In Novell's use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the two metrics.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Ticks & Hops.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: In Novell's implementation of the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), two metrics are used to determine the best path for routing: Ticks and Hops.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the metrics used in Novell's RIP with those used in other routing protocols, such as OSPF or BGP, which use different metrics like cost or bandwidth.

Explanations: Novell's RIP uses Ticks and Hops as its routing metrics. Ticks represent the delay in milliseconds for a packet to travel through a network segment, while Hops count the number of routers a packet must pass through to reach its destination. Together, these metrics help determine the optimal path for data transmission.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Ticks and Hops are the two metrics used in Novell's RIP.
Option B: Incorrect. Loops are not a metric used in Novell's RIP.
Option C: Incorrect. Loops and Counts are not the metrics used in Novell's RIP.
Option D: Incorrect. Counts are not a metric used in Novell's RIP.

53. A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Star network.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, Network+, CompTIA A+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: In a star network, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, through which all data and information pass.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the star network with a bus network, where devices are connected to a single backbone cable.

Explanations: In a star network, each device is directly connected to a central hub or switch. This central hub acts as a relay point for all data and information, ensuring that all communication passes through it. This configuration allows for easy management and troubleshooting, as the central hub can monitor and control the flow of data.

Option Analysis:

Option A: A bus network has all devices connected to a single backbone cable, not a central computer.
Option B: A star network has all devices connected to a central hub or switch, through which all data passes.
Option C: A ring network has devices connected in a circular configuration, with data passing from one device to the next.
Option D: A point-to-point network connects devices directly to each other, without a central hub.

Mnemonic: Star shines in the center.

54. Advantages of cell relay are

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Both a & b.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, Data Communications, Telecommunications

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Cell relay is a data transmission method that uses small, fixed-size packets called cells. It offers high-speed transmission and multiplexing capabilities.

Common Mistakes: Students may overlook the multiplexing capability of cell relay, focusing only on its high-speed transmission.

Explanations: Cell relay technology provides high-speed transmission by breaking data into small, fixed-size cells, which can be transmitted efficiently over a network. Additionally, it supports multiplexing, allowing multiple data streams to be combined and transmitted over a single channel. Therefore, both high-speed transmission and multiplexing are advantages of cell relay.

Option Analysis:

Option A: High-speed transmission is indeed an advantage of cell relay, but it is not the only advantage.
Option B: Multiplexing transmission is also an advantage of cell relay, but it is not the only advantage.
Option C: Both high-speed transmission and multiplexing are advantages of cell relay, making this the correct answer.
Option D: This option is incorrect as both high-speed transmission and multiplexing are valid advantages of cell relay.

55. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) NSA.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CompTIA Security+, CCNA Security

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The NSA (National Security Agency) is primarily concerned with military and intelligence-related encryption systems.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the NSA with other organizations like NIST, which focuses on standards for technology and measurement.

Explanations: The NSA is responsible for the development and implementation of cryptographic systems used by the U.S. military and intelligence agencies. This makes it the primary organization concerned with military encryption systems.

Option Analysis:

Option A: NSA is correct as it is the primary organization involved in military encryption systems.
Option B: NIST focuses on standards for technology and measurement, not specifically military encryption.
Option C: IEEE is an organization for electrical and electronics engineers, not specifically focused on military encryption.
Option D: ITU is a specialized agency of the United Nations that deals with information and communication technologies, not specifically military encryption.

Mnemonic: NSA: National Security Agency, Not Standardized, Always Secure

56. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Attack-definition file.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CompTIA Security+, CEH

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In the context of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), a signature refers to a specific pattern or set of criteria that defines a known attack or malicious activity.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse a signature with an electronic signature used for authentication, which is unrelated to IDS/IPS.

Explanations: A signature in IDS/IPS is an attack-definition file that contains specific patterns or criteria used to identify known malicious activities. This file helps the system detect and respond to potential threats by matching network traffic against these predefined patterns.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect. An electronic signature is used for authentication and is not related to IDS/IPS signatures.
Option B: Correct. A signature in IDS/IPS is an attack-definition file that helps detect malicious activities.
Option C: Incorrect. "Normal, baseline network behavior" refers to the typical traffic patterns on a network, not to a signature used for detecting attacks.
Option D: Incorrect. The correct answer is provided in Option B.

57. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of.....

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) ASK and PSK.

Exam Relevance: GATE, ECE, EE, Telecommunications Engineering Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) combines Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK) and Phase Shift Keying (PSK) to transmit data.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse QAM with other modulation techniques like FSK, which is not a component of QAM.

Explanations: Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) is a modulation scheme that combines Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK) and Phase Shift Keying (PSK). In QAM, the amplitude and phase of the carrier wave are both varied to represent multiple bits of data. ASK modulates the amplitude of the carrier wave, while PSK modulates the phase. By combining these two techniques, QAM can achieve higher data rates and more efficient use of the frequency spectrum.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect, because QAM does not combine ASK and FSK.
Option B: Correct, because QAM combines ASK and PSK.
Option C: Incorrect, because QAM does not combine PSK and FSK.
Option D: Incorrect, because ASK and PSK are the correct components of QAM.

Mnemonic: QAM = ASK + PSK

58. ..... is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) IS-95.

Exam Relevance: IEEE, ECE, Telecommunications Engineering Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: IS-95 is a second-generation cellular phone system that uses Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) and Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) technology.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse IS-95 with GSM or D-AMPS, which are also second-generation cellular systems but use different technologies.

Explanations: IS-95 is a second-generation cellular phone system that employs CDMA and DSSS. CDMA allows multiple users to share the same frequency band by assigning each user a unique code. DSSS spreads the signal over a wide frequency band, which enhances security and reduces interference. This combination makes IS-95 distinct from other second-generation systems like GSM and D-AMPS.

Option Analysis:

Option A: GSM is a second-generation cellular system that uses Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) and Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA), not CDMA and DSSS.
Option B: D-AMPS is a second-generation cellular system that uses TDMA, not CDMA and DSSS.
Option C: IS-95 is the correct answer as it is a second-generation cellular system that uses CDMA and DSSS.
Option D: This option is incorrect as IS-95 is the correct answer.

59. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Link state protocol.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CCNP, CISSP

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state routing protocol used in IP networks to calculate the best path for data to travel.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse OSPF with other routing protocols like RIP (Routing Information Protocol) or consider it an error-correction protocol.

Explanations: OSPF is classified as a link-state protocol because it uses a link-state algorithm to construct a topology map of the network. Each router in the network maintains a link-state database that describes the state of all links to its neighbors. This information is used to calculate the shortest path to each destination, making OSPF a link-state protocol.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
Option B: Incorrect. OSPF is not an error-correction protocol; it is a routing protocol.
Option C: Incorrect. OSPF is not the same as RIP, which is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Option D: Incorrect. Not all options are correct; only Option A is correct.

60. Baseband is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Transmission of signals without modulation.

Exam Relevance: Networking exams, Telecommunications exams, Computer Science exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Baseband refers to the transmission of signals without modulation, meaning the signal is transmitted directly over a communication channel without any changes to its frequency or other characteristics.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse baseband with broadband, which involves the use of modulation to transmit multiple signals over a wide range of frequencies.

Explanations: Baseband transmission involves sending signals directly over a communication channel without any form of modulation. This means the original signal is transmitted as is, without altering its frequency or other characteristics. This is in contrast to modulated signals, where the original signal is modified to fit a specific frequency range or to be transmitted over a different medium.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Baseband is the transmission of signals without modulation.
Option B: Incorrect. This describes a signal with a finite frequency range, but does not specifically define baseband transmission.
Option C: Incorrect. This describes broadcasting or multicasting, not baseband transmission.
Option D: Incorrect. Since not all options are correct, this cannot be the right answer.

⬅ Previous SetSet 6Next Set ➡

Computer networking MCQ - Set 6

Leave a Reply