Computer networking MCQ – Change your future

641. As frequency increases, the period.....

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Decreases.

Exam Relevance: AP Physics, IB Physics, SAT II Physics

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The period of a wave is the time it takes for one complete cycle of the wave to occur. Frequency is the number of cycles per unit time. As frequency increases, the time for each cycle (period) must decrease to fit more cycles into the same time frame.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse frequency and period, thinking that if one increases, the other must also increase.

Explanations: The relationship between frequency (f) and period (T) is given by the equation \( T = \frac{1}{f} \). As frequency increases, the period decreases because the period is the reciprocal of the frequency. This means that higher frequency results in shorter periods.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. As frequency increases, the period decreases.
Option B: Incorrect. The period does not increase with frequency.
Option C: Incorrect. The period does not remain the same as frequency increases.
Option D: Incorrect. The period does not double as frequency increases.

642. A network that uses ADMs to allow communications between several terminals is called

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Multipoint Network.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, Telecommunications, Network Engineering

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A multipoint network allows communication between multiple terminals using ADMs (Add-Drop Multiplexers).

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse multipoint networks with point-to-point networks, which only connect two specific points.

Explanations: Multipoint networks use ADMs to enable communication between several terminals. ADMs allow data to be added to or dropped from a network, facilitating connections among multiple points. This makes the network a multipoint network, as opposed to a point-to-point network which only connects two specific points.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Point to Point networks only connect two specific points, not multiple terminals.
Option B: Multipoint Network correctly describes a network that uses ADMs to allow communications between several terminals.
Option C: Linear Networks typically refer to a specific type of network topology, not a network using ADMs for multiple terminal communication.
Option D: SONET Networks are a specific type of network technology, not a description of a network using ADMs for multiple terminal communication.

Mnemonic: ADMs Make Points Multiply

643. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a peer to peer network?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) It has centralized security and administration.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CompTIA Network+, CCNA

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In a peer-to-peer network, each computer can act as both a client and a server, and there is no central server or centralized administration.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that peer-to-peer networks have centralized security and administration because they are familiar with client-server networks, which do have centralized control.

Explanations: Peer-to-peer networks do not have centralized security and administration. Instead, each node in the network can function as both a client and a server, sharing resources and responsibilities. This decentralized nature is a defining characteristic of peer-to-peer networks, distinguishing them from client-server networks where a central server manages security and administration.

Option Analysis:

Option A: This is incorrect because peer-to-peer networks do not have centralized security and administration. Each node can function independently.
Option B: This is correct as a characteristic of peer-to-peer networks. Each computer can act as both a client and a server.
Option C: This is correct as a characteristic of peer-to-peer networks. They typically involve a limited number of computers.
Option D: This is correct as a characteristic of peer-to-peer networks. They do not require a central server.

Mnemonic: P2P: No Central Control

644. In Satellite Networks, signal power of footprint is maximum at the

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Center.

Exam Relevance: GATE, GRE, ECE Exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: In satellite networks, the footprint refers to the area on the Earth's surface where the satellite signal can be received. The signal power is typically strongest at the center of this footprint.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that the signal power is strongest at the edges or corners of the footprint, where the signal might be weaker due to the curvature of the Earth and the angle of the satellite's transmission.

Explanations: The signal power of a satellite footprint is maximum at the center because the satellite's antenna is designed to focus the signal directly towards the center of the footprint. This ensures that the strongest signal is received at the point closest to the satellite's direct line of sight, which is the center of the footprint.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The corner of the footprint is not the location where the signal power is maximum due to the angle and distance from the satellite.
Option B: The bottom of the footprint is not a standard term and does not accurately describe the location of maximum signal power.
Option C: The center of the footprint is where the signal power is maximum due to the direct line of sight and focused transmission from the satellite.
Option D: The border line of the footprint is where the signal power is typically weaker, as it is at the edge of the satellite's coverage area.

Mnemonic: Center = Strongest Signal

645. What is the header size of UDP packet?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) 8 bytes.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, CCNA, CISSP

Difficulty: Very Easy

Concept notes: The header size of a UDP (User Datagram Protocol) packet is 8 bytes.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the header size of UDP with other protocols, such as TCP, which has a larger header size.

Explanations: The UDP header consists of four fields: source port, destination port, length, and checksum. Each field is 2 bytes, making the total header size 8 bytes.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The UDP header size is 8 bytes.
Option B: Incorrect. 8 bits is equivalent to 1 byte, which is not the correct size for the UDP header.
Option C: Incorrect. 16 bytes is larger than the actual UDP header size.
Option D: Incorrect. 124 bytes is significantly larger than the actual UDP header size.

646. Network layer firewall works as a

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Packet filter.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CCNA, CEH

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Network layer firewalls operate at the network layer of the OSI model and filter packets based on their IP addresses and port numbers.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse network layer firewalls with data link layer firewalls, which operate at the frame level.

Explanations: Network layer firewalls work by examining the packet headers to determine whether to allow or block the packet based on predefined rules. This filtering is done at the IP level, making it a packet filter.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Frame filters operate at the data link layer, not the network layer.
Option B: Correct. Network layer firewalls filter packets based on IP addresses and port numbers.
Option C: Network layer firewalls do not function as frame filters.
Option D: This is incorrect as network layer firewalls are packet filters.

647. Net Nanny is a type of

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Is a program that can screen an incoming Web page to determine whether some or all of it should not be displayed to the user.

Exam Relevance: IT Essentials, CompTIA A+, Internet Safety Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Net Nanny is a type of software designed to filter and monitor internet content to protect users, particularly children, from inappropriate content.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Net Nanny with other internet services or security measures, such as domain management or network identifiers.

Explanations: Net Nanny is a program that screens incoming web pages to determine if they should be displayed to the user. This function is crucial for parental control and content filtering, ensuring that users are not exposed to harmful or inappropriate content.

Option Analysis:

Option A: This describes a phishing website, not a content filtering program.
Option B: This describes a domain name service, not a content filtering program.
Option C: This describes a MAC address, not a content filtering program.
Option D: This correctly describes Net Nanny as a program that screens web pages for inappropriate content.

Mnemonic: N for Net Nanny, N for No Nasty Net

648. SNMP is responsible for creating a message, called a

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) GetRequest message.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management and monitoring. It involves the exchange of messages between a manager and an agent. One of the primary messages used in SNMP is the GetRequest message, which is sent by the manager to retrieve information from the agent.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the GetRequest message with other SNMP messages such as SetRequest or Trap messages, which serve different purposes.

Explanations: SNMP is responsible for creating a message called a GetRequest message. This message is used to retrieve information from managed devices on a network. The GetRequest message is sent by the manager to the agent, which then responds with the requested information.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The GetRequest message is a standard SNMP message used to retrieve information from managed devices.
Option B: Incorrect. While SNMP messages are encoded, "Encoded message" is not a specific type of SNMP message.
Option C: Incorrect. "Senders display message" is not a standard term in SNMP.
Option D: Incorrect. Not all of the options are correct.

Mnemonic: G-R-M: GetRequest Message

649. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is not based on

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Destination Address.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CCNP, Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is a mechanism used in multicast routing to prevent loops and ensure that packets are forwarded only along the reverse path of the multicast source.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse RPF with unicast routing, where destination addresses are crucial. However, RPF is specifically designed for multicast routing and uses the source address to ensure packets are forwarded correctly.

Explanations: RPF checks the source address of incoming multicast packets against the routing table to ensure the packet is coming from the expected interface. This process does not rely on the destination address, as the destination address is not used to determine the reverse path. Instead, it uses the source address to ensure packets are forwarded along the correct path.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Source Address is used in RPF to determine the reverse path. This is incorrect as the question asks what RPF is not based on.
Option B: IP Address is a broad term that can include both source and destination addresses. While IP addresses are involved in RPF, the specific use is for the source address, not the destination.
Option C: Destination Address is not used in RPF to determine the reverse path. This is the correct answer as RPF relies on the source address.
Option D: Protocol Process is not directly related to the mechanism of RPF, which focuses on the source address for reverse path determination.

Mnemonic: Source, not Destination, for RPF.

650. Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is used.

Exam Relevance: GRE, GATE, IEEE Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The residual error rate is a measure of the effectiveness of an error detection scheme. It quantifies the likelihood that errors will go unnoticed.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse residual error rate with the probability of detecting errors, which is a different metric.

Explanations: The residual error rate is defined as the probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is used. This is a critical metric in evaluating the reliability of communication systems, as it indicates the likelihood that errors will pass through undetected, potentially leading to incorrect data interpretation or transmission.

Option Analysis:

Option A: This describes a bit error rate over a specific time period, not a residual error rate.
Option B: This correctly defines the residual error rate as the probability of undetected errors.
Option C: This describes the probability of detecting errors, which is not the same as the residual error rate.
Option D: This describes a signal-to-noise ratio calculation, unrelated to error detection.

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Computer networking MCQ - Set 65

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