Computer networking MCQ – Change your future

721. The basic advantage of a computer network is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Easy to communicate.

Exam Relevance: IT Essentials, CompTIA A+, Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The basic advantage of a computer network is that it facilitates easy communication between different devices and users.

Common Mistakes: Students might confuse the advantages of a network with potential security risks, such as hacking.

Explanations: A computer network allows users to share information and resources, making communication between different devices and users more efficient and straightforward. This ease of communication is a fundamental benefit of networking technology.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Hacking is not an advantage but rather a potential security issue.
Option B: Easy to communicate is the correct advantage of a computer network.
Option C: Network down refers to a network failure, not an advantage.
Option D: None of the above is incorrect as easy communication is a valid advantage.

722. In Frame Relay, when..... is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) An SVC.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, Network+, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In Frame Relay, SVCs (Switched Virtual Circuits) require the establishment and termination phases, whereas PVCs (Permanent Virtual Circuits) do not.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse PVCs and SVCs, thinking that both require the same setup procedures.

Explanations: SVCs in Frame Relay are dynamically established and terminated on demand. This means that when a connection is needed, the network establishes the SVC, and when the communication is complete, the SVC is terminated. PVCs, on the other hand, are pre-configured and always available, so they do not require the establishment and termination phases.

Option Analysis:

Option A: PVCs do not require the establishment and termination phases as they are pre-configured.
Option B: SVCs require the establishment and termination phases as they are dynamically created and removed.
Option C: This option is incorrect because only SVCs require the establishment and termination phases.
Option D: This option is incorrect because SVCs do require the establishment and termination phases.

Mnemonic: SVCs: Set Up, Connect, Disconnect

723. Interconnection networks are also called

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Both a and b.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, Data Communications, Network Fundamentals

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Interconnection networks are fundamental components in computer networks and are often referred to as communication subnets or communication subsystems. They are responsible for the transmission of data between different nodes or devices.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that interconnection networks are only referred to as communication subnets and overlook the term communication subsystems.

Explanations: Interconnection networks are indeed referred to as communication subnets because they form the backbone of the network, handling the routing and transmission of data packets. They are also called communication subsystems as they are a subset of the overall communication system, focusing specifically on the interconnection and data transfer aspects. Therefore, both terms are correct and commonly used in the field of computer networking.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Communication subnets is a correct term for interconnection networks.
Option B: Communication subsystems is also a correct term for interconnection networks.
Option C: Cellular telecommunication is not related to interconnection networks in the context of computer networks.
Option D: Both a and b are correct, making this the right answer.

724. In Interim Standard 95 forward transmission, output of decimator is used for

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Scrambling.

Exam Relevance: Wireless Communication Exams, Digital Communication Exams, Telecommunication Engineering Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In IS-95 forward transmission, the output of the decimator is used for scrambling the data to ensure security and prevent unauthorized access.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the function of the decimator with other processes like framing or searching, which are also part of the IS-95 protocol but serve different purposes.

Explanations: The decimator in IS-95 forward transmission reduces the sampling rate of the input signal. The output of the decimator is then used for scrambling the data. Scrambling is a process that adds a pseudo-random sequence to the data to make it appear random and secure, preventing unauthorized interception and decoding. This ensures that the transmitted data remains confidential and secure.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Signaling is not the primary use of the decimator output in IS-95 forward transmission.
Option B: Scrambling is the correct use of the decimator output in IS-95 forward transmission.
Option C: Framing is a different process that involves organizing data into frames, not directly related to the decimator output.
Option D: Searching is a process used for signal acquisition, not related to the decimator output.

725. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Non-broadcast multi-access.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, Cisco certifications

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Frame Relay is a WAN technology that operates in a non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) environment. In an NBMA network, multiple devices can communicate, but broadcast is not supported, meaning that data packets are sent directly to specific devices rather than to all devices on the network.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Frame Relay with broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, where broadcast is a key feature.

Explanations: Frame Relay is classified as a non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) network because it allows multiple devices to communicate over a shared infrastructure, but it does not support broadcast communication. Instead, data packets are sent directly to specific devices, making it a point-to-point communication method within a multi-access environment.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Point-to-point networks are not the same as Frame Relay, which is a multi-access network.
Option B: Broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, support broadcast communication, which is not a feature of Frame Relay.
Option C: Frame Relay is a non-broadcast multi-access network, where data packets are sent directly to specific devices.
Option D: Non-broadcast multipoint is not a standard classification for Frame Relay; the correct term is non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA).

726. We can use ping program to find if a host is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Both A & C.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The ping program is used to test the reachability of a host on a network.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that ping can only determine if a host is alive, not if it is responding.

Explanations: The ping program sends ICMP echo request packets to a specified host and waits for a response. If the host is reachable and responds, it indicates that the host is both alive and responding. Therefore, the ping program can be used to determine if a host is alive and responding.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Ping can determine if a host is alive by receiving a response.
Option B: Ping does not determine if a host is dead; it only checks for a response.
Option C: Ping can determine if a host is responding by receiving a response.
Option D: Both A and C are correct as ping can determine if a host is alive and responding.

Mnemonic: PING: Prove It's Not Gone

727. A person who secretly gains access to a computer in order to gain information or cause damage.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Hackers.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CEH, CompTIA Security+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Hackers are individuals who gain unauthorized access to computer systems to obtain information or cause damage.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse hackers with other terms like "computer professionals" or "internet trolls," which have different meanings.

Explanations: Hackers are known for their unauthorized access to computer systems, often with the intent to steal information or cause damage. This aligns with the description provided in the question. Computer professionals typically work within legal and ethical boundaries, while internet trolls engage in disruptive behavior online but do not necessarily gain unauthorized access to systems.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Hackers fit the description of individuals who secretly gain access to computers for unauthorized purposes.
Option B: Incorrect. Computer professionals generally work within legal and ethical boundaries and do not engage in unauthorized access.
Option C: Incorrect. Internet trolls engage in disruptive behavior online but do not necessarily gain unauthorized access to systems.
Option D: Incorrect. The correct answer is provided in the options.

728. A domain is a sub tree of the

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Domain name space.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A domain is a sub tree of the domain name space, which is a hierarchical structure used to organize and identify resources on the internet.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the domain name space with other internet-related terms such as FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) or FNS (File Name System).

Explanations: The domain name space is a hierarchical structure that organizes domain names into a tree-like structure. Each domain is a sub tree within this structure, representing a specific segment of the internet. This hierarchical organization allows for efficient and unique identification of resources on the internet.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. A domain is indeed a sub tree of the domain name space.
Option B: Incorrect. PQDN (Partial Qualified Domain Name) is not a hierarchical structure but a part of a domain name.
Option C: Incorrect. FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) is a complete domain name that uniquely specifies its location in the domain name space, not a hierarchical structure.
Option D: Incorrect. FNS (File Name System) is unrelated to the hierarchical structure of domain names.

Mnemonic: DNS Tree: Domain Name Space is the Tree.

729. Transmission media lie below the..... layer.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Physical.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, CIW Network Specialist

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Transmission media are the physical components used to transmit data in a network, such as cables, fiber optics, or wireless signals. These components operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the Physical layer with the Data Link layer, which deals with the physical addressing and network topology.

Explanations: Transmission media are directly involved in the physical transmission of data, which is the primary function of the Physical layer. This layer is responsible for the actual physical connection and the transmission of raw bit streams over a communication channel.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Transmission media operate at the Physical layer.
Option B: Incorrect. The Network layer deals with routing and logical addressing, not physical transmission.
Option C: Incorrect. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and error recovery, not physical transmission.
Option D: Incorrect. The Application layer is the highest layer and deals with user applications and services, not physical transmission.

730. By extracting 32 rightmost bits from mapped address, we can Convert

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) IPv6 address to IPv4.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The concept involves understanding how IPv6 addresses can be mapped to IPv4 addresses using a specific method.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the direction of conversion, thinking it is from IPv4 to IPv6 instead of the reverse.

Explanations: IPv6 addresses can be mapped to IPv4 addresses by extracting the 32 rightmost bits from the IPv6 address. This method is used to facilitate communication between IPv6 and IPv4 networks. The extracted 32 bits represent the IPv4 address embedded within the IPv6 address.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Extracting the 32 rightmost bits from an IPv6 address can convert it to an IPv4 address.
Option B: Incorrect. This option suggests converting IPv4 to IPv6, which is not the correct direction of conversion in this context.
Option C: Incorrect. This option is vague and does not specify the direction of conversion.
Option D: Incorrect. This option suggests that none of the above is correct, which is not true given the correct conversion method described.

Mnemonic: IPv6 to IPv4, Right 32 Bits

⬅ Previous SetSet 73Next Set ➡

Computer networking MCQ - Set 73

Leave a Reply