MCQs of Education – Change your future

711. The summative evaluation is?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Cerifying judgment.

Exam Relevance: Educational Psychology, Teaching Methodology, Educational Assessment

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Summative evaluation is a type of assessment that occurs at the end of an instructional period to determine the level of learning that has taken place.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse summative evaluation with formative evaluation, which is continuous and aims to improve learning during the instructional period.

Explanations: Summative evaluation is a final assessment that provides a certification or judgment of the learner's achievement at the end of a course or instructional period. It is not continuous (Option A) or diagnostic (Option B), which are forms of formative evaluation. Option D is incorrect as it does not specify any relevant type of evaluation.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Summative evaluation is not continuous; it is a final assessment.
Option B: Summative evaluation is not diagnostic; it does not aim to identify learning needs during the instructional period.
Option C: Summative evaluation provides a final certification or judgment of learning outcomes.
Option D: This option is incorrect as it does not specify any relevant type of evaluation.

712. The difference between maximum and minimum values is?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Range.

Exam Relevance: SAT, ACT, AP Statistics

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The range is a measure of statistical dispersion, representing the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a dataset.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the range with other measures of dispersion, such as variance or standard deviation.

Explanations: The range is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a dataset. This makes it the correct answer as it directly addresses the question of the difference between the maximum and minimum values.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values.
Option B: Incorrect. The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a dataset.
Option C: Incorrect. The mean is the average value of a dataset.
Option D: Incorrect. This option is not applicable as the range is the correct answer.

Mnemonic: Range: Remember, it's the span from the lowest to the highest.

713. The number of score lying in a class interval is?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Frequencies.

Exam Relevance: SAT, ACT, AP Statistics

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Frequencies refer to the number of occurrences of a particular value or range of values within a dataset.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse frequencies with other statistical measures such as quartiles or midpoints.

Explanations: Frequencies are the count of how many times a score or value appears within a specific class interval. This directly answers the question about the number of scores lying in a class interval.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Frequencies represent the count of scores within a class interval.
Option B: Incorrect. Quartiles divide the data into four equal parts and do not represent the count of scores in a class interval.
Option C: Incorrect. The midpoint is the middle value of a class interval and does not represent the count of scores.
Option D: Incorrect. A class is a range of values but does not represent the count of scores within that range.

714. In a norm referenced test which item is best?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Item difficulty is near 50.

Exam Relevance: GRE, GMAT, LSAT, MCAT

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In a norm-referenced test, the best item difficulty is near 50% because it maximizes the test's ability to differentiate between test-takers.

Common Mistakes: Students often mistakenly believe that items with higher difficulty (near 75% or 100%) are better because they appear more challenging.

Explanations: A norm-referenced test aims to rank test-takers relative to each other. An item difficulty near 50% ensures that half of the test-takers will answer correctly and half will not, providing the best discrimination between high and low performers. Items with difficulty near 75% or 100% would be too easy, while items with difficulty near 0% would be too hard, reducing the test's ability to differentiate effectively.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Item difficulty near 50% maximizes discrimination between test-takers.
Option B: Incorrect. Item difficulty near 75% would be too easy, reducing discrimination.
Option C: Incorrect. Item difficulty near 100% would be too easy, reducing discrimination.
Option D: Incorrect. Item difficulty near zero would be too hard, reducing discrimination.

Mnemonic: 50-50 split, best fit

715. Which question has increasing objectivity of marking?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Multiple type questions.

Exam Relevance: GRE, GMAT, SAT, MCAT

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Multiple type questions have a clear, definitive answer, making them more objective to mark.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the objectivity of marking with the complexity of the question.

Explanations: Multiple type questions are designed to have a single correct answer, which makes them highly objective to mark. There is little room for subjective interpretation, as the answer is either correct or incorrect.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Multiple type questions are the most objective to mark because they have a single correct answer.
Option B: Unstructured essays are highly subjective as they require evaluation of content, structure, and coherence, leading to variability in marking.
Option C: Structured essays are more objective than unstructured essays but still require some subjective judgment in evaluating the quality of the response.
Option D: Short answer questions can be somewhat objective but may still allow for some variability in marking, especially if the answer requires explanation or elaboration.

716. The most widely used format on standardized test in USA is?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Multiple type questions.

Exam Relevance: SAT, ACT, GRE, GMAT

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Multiple choice questions are the most widely used format in standardized tests in the USA due to their ease of grading and ability to cover a wide range of content efficiently.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that essay questions are more common in standardized tests, but multiple choice questions are actually more prevalent due to their practicality.

Explanations: Multiple choice questions are favored in standardized tests because they can be easily and objectively scored, reducing the potential for grading bias. They also allow for a broad assessment of knowledge across various topics, making them an efficient format for large-scale testing.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Short answer questions require more detailed responses and are more time-consuming to grade, making them less common in standardized tests.
Option B: Structured essay questions are more complex and require subjective grading, which is less practical for large-scale standardized testing.
Option C: Unstructured essay questions are even more complex and time-consuming to grade, making them impractical for standardized tests.
Option D: Multiple choice questions are the most widely used format in standardized tests due to their ease of grading and efficiency in covering a wide range of content.

Mnemonic: MCQs = Most Common Questions

717. Which questions are difficult to mark with reliability?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Unstructured essay.

Exam Relevance: GRE, GMAT, LSAT

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Unstructured essays are difficult to mark with reliability because they allow for a wide range of responses and interpretations.

Common Mistakes: Students may incorrectly assume that structured essays or multiple-choice questions are equally difficult to mark reliably.

Explanations: Unstructured essays are open-ended and can cover a broad range of topics and arguments. This variability makes it challenging for markers to apply consistent criteria across different responses. In contrast, short answers, structured essays, and multiple-choice questions have more defined and specific criteria, making them easier to mark reliably.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Short answer questions have specific, concise answers that are easier to evaluate against a set of criteria.
Option B: Structured essays have a defined format and specific points to address, making them more consistent to mark.
Option C: Unstructured essays allow for a wide range of responses and interpretations, making them difficult to mark with reliability.
Option D: Multiple-choice questions have clear, unambiguous answers that are straightforward to mark.

718. Projective techniques are used to measure?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Personality.

Exam Relevance: GRE Psychology, MCAT, Psychology PhD entrance exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Projective techniques are psychological assessment methods that aim to uncover unconscious thoughts and feelings by interpreting a person's responses to ambiguous stimuli.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse projective techniques with other psychological assessment methods, such as intelligence tests or aptitude tests, which are more structured and less open to interpretation.

Explanations: Projective techniques are used to measure personality because they allow individuals to project their unconscious thoughts and feelings onto ambiguous stimuli. This method is particularly useful for uncovering aspects of personality that may not be directly observable or consciously acknowledged. Intelligence, knowledge, and aptitude are typically measured through more structured and standardized tests that do not rely on the interpretation of ambiguous stimuli.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Intelligence is typically measured through standardized tests that assess cognitive abilities, not through projective techniques.
Option B: Projective techniques are designed to measure personality by interpreting responses to ambiguous stimuli, revealing unconscious thoughts and feelings.
Option C: Knowledge is usually assessed through direct questioning or standardized tests, not through projective techniques.
Option D: Aptitude is generally measured through structured tests that evaluate specific skills or abilities, not through projective techniques.

Mnemonic: P-P-P: Projective techniques for Personality

719. Test meant for prediction on a certain criterion are called?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Aptitude test.

Exam Relevance: GRE, GMAT, SAT, Civil Services Exam

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Aptitude tests are designed to predict a person's ability to perform a specific task or function in the future.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse aptitude tests with intelligence tests, which measure general cognitive abilities rather than specific skills.

Explanations: Aptitude tests are specifically designed to predict future performance on a certain criterion, such as job performance or academic success. They assess a person's potential to learn and perform in a particular area, making them suitable for prediction purposes.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Knowledge tests measure what a person already knows, not their potential to perform in the future.
Option B: Personality tests assess traits and characteristics, not predictive abilities.
Option C: Intelligence tests measure general cognitive abilities, not specific aptitudes.
Option D: Aptitude tests are designed to predict future performance on a specific criterion.

Mnemonic: Aptitude = Ability to predict

720. Kuder Richardson method is used to estimate?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Reliability.

Exam Relevance: Psychology exams, Educational Measurement exams, Statistics exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Kuder-Richardson method is a statistical technique used to estimate the reliability of a test or scale. It measures the internal consistency of a set of items, indicating how closely related a set of items are as a group.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse reliability with validity. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measure, while validity refers to the accuracy of a measure.

Explanations: The Kuder-Richardson method is specifically designed to estimate reliability, which is the consistency of a measure. It assesses how well a set of items measures a single construct by examining the inter-item correlations. This method is particularly useful for tests with dichotomous items (e.g., true/false or yes/no questions). Therefore, the correct answer is reliability.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Validity is not estimated by the Kuder-Richardson method. Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure.
Option B: Reliability is the correct answer as the Kuder-Richardson method is used to estimate the internal consistency of a test or scale.
Option C: Usability is not a statistical measure and is not estimated by the Kuder-Richardson method.
Option D: Objectivity is not estimated by the Kuder-Richardson method. Objectivity refers to the degree to which a test is free from bias.

Mnemonic: KR for Reliability

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6 thoughts on “MCQs of Education - Set 72”

Amina Khatun January 1, 2020
Dada,apnar EI practice set tar Kno jobab nei….vison helpful 🙏🙏
JITENDRA KUMAR SETHI April 23, 2020
Better question
vijay April 26, 2020
Q44
Wilhelm Wundt opened the Institute for Experimental Psychology at the University of Leipzig in Germany in 1879.
Aliza Ali December 14, 2020
I don,t agree with mcq no.759🤨
KISHOR RAMDHAN GHUNAWAT April 26, 2021
Nice sir Thanks for.
Syed Zaheer Abbas September 2, 2021
بہت مرہ آیا قسم سے ، from Skardu rundu Pakistan

6 thoughts on “MCQs of Education - Set 72”

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