General knowledge MCQ – Change your future

11. The Wheel & Axle Plant of the Indian Railways is located in [General Knowledge for JKPSC Examination-1981]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, JKPSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Wheel & Axle Plant of the Indian Railways is a significant facility for manufacturing railway wheels and axles.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the location with other major railway facilities in India, such as the Chittaranjan Locomotive Works in West Bengal.

Explanations: The Wheel & Axle Plant of the Indian Railways is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. This plant is a critical component of the Indian Railways infrastructure, responsible for the production of high-quality railway wheels and axles. The location in Bengaluru is strategic due to the availability of skilled labor and advanced manufacturing facilities.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Kapurthala, Punjab is incorrect as it is not the location of the Wheel & Axle Plant.
Option B: Perambur, Chennai is incorrect as it is the location of the Chennai Locomotive Works, not the Wheel & Axle Plant.
Option C: Bengaluru, Karnataka is the correct location of the Wheel & Axle Plant.
Option D: Chittaranjan, West Bengal is incorrect as it is the location of the Chittaranjan Locomotive Works, not the Wheel & Axle Plant.

Mnemonic: WAP-Bengaluru: Wheel & Axle Plant in Bengaluru.

12. The most reliable source of information about virus outbreaks is: [Assistant Central Intelligence Officer Examination-2004]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) The World Health Organization (The WHO).

Exam Relevance: UPSC, Civil Services, Competitive Exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. It is the most reliable source for information on global health issues, including virus outbreaks.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that social media or news headlines are the most reliable sources due to their widespread use and immediate availability.

Explanations: The World Health Organization (WHO) is the most reliable source of information about virus outbreaks because it is an international organization dedicated to public health. It has a global network of experts and resources to monitor, investigate, and provide accurate and timely information on health emergencies. Other sources like friends, social media, and news headlines may not always provide accurate or verified information.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The World Health Organization (WHO) is the correct choice as it is the most reliable source for virus outbreak information.
Option B: Friends are not a reliable source for verified information on virus outbreaks.
Option C: Social media can spread misinformation and is not a reliable source for accurate health information.
Option D: News headlines may not always provide comprehensive or verified information on virus outbreaks.

13. The Complaint to Insurance Ombudsman must be registered within ..... year(s) [Chhattisgarh Postal Circle Examination-2020]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) 1.

Exam Relevance: Chhattisgarh Postal Circle Examination, UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The Complaint to Insurance Ombudsman must be registered within 1 year.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the time limit with other regulatory bodies or industries that have different timeframes.

Explanations: The Insurance Ombudsman Act, 2006, stipulates that a complaint must be registered within one year from the date of the incident or the date when the aggrieved party became aware of the incident. This time limit is strictly enforced to ensure timely resolution of disputes.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The complaint must be registered within 1 year.
Option B: Incorrect. The time limit is not 2 years.
Option C: Incorrect. The time limit is not 3 years.
Option D: Incorrect. The time limit is not 4 years.

Mnemonic: One year, no delay, file your complaint today.

14. The real executive power under a Parliamentary Government rests with [General Knowledge for Indian Foreign Service (IFS) Examination-1998]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) The Council of Ministers.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, IAS, IFS, Civil Services

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In a Parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, holds the real executive power.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the role of the Parliament and the Council of Ministers, thinking that the Parliament holds the executive power.

Explanations: In a Parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers is responsible for the day-to-day governance and implementation of policies. The Prime Minister, who is the head of the Council of Ministers, is the real executive authority. The Parliament's role is primarily legislative, and while it has oversight powers, the actual executive functions are carried out by the Council of Ministers.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The Parliament is the legislative body and does not hold executive power.
Option B: The King, in a constitutional monarchy, is a ceremonial figurehead and does not hold real executive power.
Option C: The Council of Ministers holds the real executive power in a Parliamentary system.
Option D: The Civil Servants are part of the bureaucracy and implement policies but do not hold executive power.

Mnemonic: PM (Prime Minister) = Real Power

15. How many bones make up human skeleton? [SSC GD Examination-2007]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) 206.

Exam Relevance: SSC GD, UPSC, NEET, AIIMS

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The human skeleton is composed of 206 bones, which provide support, protection, and facilitate movement.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the number of bones with other anatomical facts or may not recall the exact number.

Explanations: The human skeleton consists of 206 bones, which are categorized into the axial skeleton (80 bones) and the appendicular skeleton (126 bones). The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage, while the appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the limbs and their girdles. This number is a well-established anatomical fact and is widely recognized in medical and biological sciences.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The human skeleton consists of 206 bones.
Option B: Incorrect. 204 is not the correct number of bones in the human skeleton.
Option C: Incorrect. 306 is not the correct number of bones in the human skeleton.
Option D: Incorrect. 208 is not the correct number of bones in the human skeleton.

16. What was "gold fever?" [Rajasthan Postal Circle Examination-1982]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) The desire to get rich quick by acquiring California gold.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Bank PO, Competitive Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: "Gold fever" refers to the intense desire and rush to acquire gold, particularly during the California Gold Rush of the mid-19th century.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse "gold fever" with a literal fever or a disease, or they may not understand the historical context of the term.

Explanations: "Gold fever" was a term used to describe the widespread excitement and rush to California during the Gold Rush era. People from all over the world were driven by the desire to get rich quickly by finding and acquiring gold. This phenomenon led to a significant migration and economic boom in California.

Option Analysis:

Option A: This option is incorrect as "gold fever" is not a disease caused by exposure to radioactive gold. It is a term used to describe the intense desire for wealth through gold acquisition.
Option B: This option is incorrect because "gold fever" does not refer to a rise in gold prices but rather the rush to acquire gold itself.
Option C: This option is incorrect as "gold fever" is not a mental illness but a term describing the widespread desire for wealth through gold.
Option D: This option correctly describes "gold fever" as the desire to get rich quickly by acquiring California gold.

17. National Research Centre for Grapes is located at which among the following places?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Pune.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The National Research Centre for Grapes is a specialized research institution dedicated to grape cultivation and related agricultural research.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the location of the National Research Centre for Grapes with other agricultural research centers in India.

Explanations: The National Research Centre for Grapes is located in Pune, Maharashtra. This institution is part of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and focuses on research and development in grape cultivation, including breeding, disease management, and post-harvest technology.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Nasik is incorrect as it is not the location of the National Research Centre for Grapes.
Option B: Pune is the correct location of the National Research Centre for Grapes.
Option C: Ahamadabad is incorrect as it is not the location of the National Research Centre for Grapes.
Option D: Kolhapur is incorrect as it is not the location of the National Research Centre for Grapes.

Mnemonic: Pune, P for Grapes

18. Consider the following Statements: Executive Support Systems help top-level management to plan strategies. Any activity can be an act of Worship In general, the higher the potential return on an investment, the riskier the investment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? [National Council for Research Education Training and (NCERT) Examination-1981]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Only 1, 2, 3.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, GRE, GMAT, CAT

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The statements provided cover a range of topics including management systems, religious beliefs, and investment principles. Each statement is independently true based on their respective fields.

Common Mistakes: Students may incorrectly assume that not all statements are true, leading them to choose options that exclude one or more statements.

Explanations: Statement 1: Executive Support Systems (ESS) are designed to assist top-level management in strategic planning by providing comprehensive data analysis and visualization tools. This is a well-established fact in the field of management information systems. Statement 2: The concept that any activity can be an act of worship is a belief held in many religious and spiritual traditions. This statement is true from a philosophical and religious perspective. Statement 3: In finance, the principle that higher potential returns are associated with higher risk is a fundamental concept. This is a widely accepted principle in investment theory and practice. Since all three statements are independently true, the correct answer is that all three statements are true.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect because it excludes statement 3.
Option B: Incorrect because it excludes statement 2.
Option C: Correct because it includes all three true statements.
Option D: Incorrect because it excludes statement 1.

Mnemonic: ESS, Worship, Risk-Return

19. Ethernet- [SBI PO Examination-2000]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Both (A) and (B).

Exam Relevance: SBI PO, UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Ethernet was co-invented by Robert M. Metcalfe and David Boggs.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that only one individual is credited with the invention of Ethernet.

Explanations: Ethernet, a widely used networking technology, was co-invented by Robert M. Metcalfe and David Boggs. Robert M. Metcalfe is often more prominently recognized for his role in the development of Ethernet, but David Boggs also made significant contributions. Therefore, both individuals are credited with the invention of Ethernet.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Robert M. Metcalfe is a correct contributor to the invention of Ethernet.
Option B: R. Boggs (David Boggs) is also a correct contributor to the invention of Ethernet.
Option C: Both (A) and (B) are correct as both individuals are credited with the invention of Ethernet.
Option D: This option is incorrect as both Metcalfe and Boggs are recognized for their contributions to Ethernet.

20. Which one of the following Service Organisations is the subsidiary of the National Civil Aviation India Limited (Air India)? [SSC CHSL Examination-2005]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Both 'a' and 'b'.

Exam Relevance: SSC CHSL, UPSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Air India, a national carrier of India, has several subsidiaries that operate under its umbrella. These subsidiaries include Alliance Air and Air India Charters Limited.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that only one of the options is correct, not recognizing that both Alliance Air and Air India Charters Limited are subsidiaries of Air India.

Explanations: Air India, as a national carrier, has multiple subsidiaries to expand its services. Alliance Air is a subsidiary that operates regional air services, while Air India Charters Limited provides charter services. Both these entities are under the ownership of Air India, making option D the correct answer.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Alliance Air is indeed a subsidiary of Air India, but it is not the only one.
Option B: Air India Charters Limited is also a subsidiary of Air India, but it is not the only one.
Option C: Inter Globe Aviation Limited is not a subsidiary of Air India; it is the parent company of IndiGo, a private airline.
Option D: Both Alliance Air and Air India Charters Limited are subsidiaries of Air India, making this the correct answer.

Mnemonic: AICL and AA under AI

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