General knowledge MCQ – Change your future

31. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing mandatory for environmental clearance on [UPSC SCRA Examination-1991]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) 10th April 1997.

Exam Relevance: UPSC Civil Services, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification to make public hearings mandatory for environmental clearance.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the exact date with other significant dates related to environmental regulations.

Explanations: The Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification on 10th April 1997, making public hearings mandatory for environmental clearance. This amendment was a significant step towards ensuring public participation in the environmental clearance process for projects.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 27th January 1996 is incorrect as it does not match the date of the amendment.
Option B: 10th April 1997 is the correct date when the amendment was made.
Option C: 27th January 1997 is incorrect as it does not match the date of the amendment.
Option D: None of the above is incorrect as the correct date is provided in the options.

Mnemonic: EIA 1997, Public Hearings, April 10

32. What food makes up most of a giant panda diet? [RRB NTPC Examination-2021]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Bamboo.

Exam Relevance: RRB NTPC, UPSC, SSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Giant pandas primarily consume bamboo as their main food source.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that giant pandas eat a more varied diet, including fruits or other plants.

Explanations: Giant pandas are known for their specialized diet, with bamboo making up over 99% of their food intake. They have evolved to digest bamboo efficiently, despite it being a low-nutrient food source. This dietary specialization is a key characteristic of giant pandas.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Bamboo is the primary food source for giant pandas.
Option B: Incorrect. Mangoes are not a significant part of a giant panda's diet.
Option C: Incorrect. Potatoes are not a significant part of a giant panda's diet.
Option D: Incorrect. Bamboo is indeed a significant part of a giant panda's diet.

Mnemonic: Bamboo Bears: Giant pandas munch mostly bamboo.

33. Which of these solution is not a disinfectant?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) 0.2 percent solution of phenol.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, GRE, MCAT, GATE

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Disinfectants are substances that kill or inactivate microorganisms. The concentration of a disinfectant is crucial for its effectiveness. Different concentrations of the same substance can have different uses.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that any concentration of phenol is effective as a disinfectant, without considering the specific concentration required for disinfection.

Explanations: Phenol is a known disinfectant, but its effectiveness depends on the concentration. A 1 percent solution of phenol is commonly used as a disinfectant, while a 0.2 percent solution is not typically considered effective for disinfection. Chlorine solutions at 0.2 to 0.4 ppm are also used as disinfectants, particularly in water treatment. Therefore, the 0.2 percent solution of phenol is not a disinfectant.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 0.2 to 0.4 ppm chlorine solution is a disinfectant used in water treatment.
Option B: 0.2 percent solution of phenol is not a disinfectant; it is too dilute to be effective.
Option C: 1 percent solution of phenol is a disinfectant.
Option D: This option is incorrect as not all the solutions listed are disinfectants.

34. Which one of the following is the "House" whose presiding officer is not its member? [General Knowledge for PNRD Examination-2009]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Rajya Sabha.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, PNRD, Civil Services

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha, known as the Deputy Speaker, is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. Instead, the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the members of the Lok Sabha.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the roles and presiding officers of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, leading to errors in identifying the correct answer.

Explanations: The Deputy Speaker of the Rajya Sabha is elected from the members of the Lok Sabha, not from the Rajya Sabha itself. This unique arrangement ensures that the presiding officer is not a member of the house they are overseeing, maintaining a level of impartiality. In contrast, the presiding officers of the Lok Sabha, Legislative Council, and Legislative Assembly are members of their respective houses.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The presiding officer of the Legislative Council is a member of the Legislative Council.
Option B: The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is a member of the Lok Sabha.
Option C: The Deputy Speaker of the Rajya Sabha is not a member of the Rajya Sabha but is elected from the Lok Sabha.
Option D: The presiding officer of the Legislative Assembly is a member of the Legislative Assembly.

Mnemonic: Rajya Sabha, Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha

35. The synagogue is generally [General Knowledge for Karnataka TET Examination-2021]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Jewish House of Prayer.

Exam Relevance: Karnataka TET, UPSC, SSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: A synagogue is a place of worship for Jews, functioning as a house of prayer, study, and community gathering.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the synagogue with other religious buildings, such as a mosque or a church.

Explanations: A synagogue is specifically a Jewish place of worship, where religious services, prayers, and communal activities take place. It is not a general term for any place or an epic, nor is it associated with the Parsi religion.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. A synagogue is indeed a Jewish house of prayer.
Option B: Incorrect. The Parsi temple is called a fire temple or agiary, not a synagogue.
Option C: Incorrect. This is too vague and does not specify the religious context.
Option D: Incorrect. An epic is a long narrative poem, not a place of worship.

36. What is the degree beyond a Bachelors, also called graduate degree? [Andhra Pradesh Police Examination-1983]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Master's Degree.

Exam Relevance: Andhra Pradesh Police Examination, Civil Services Examination, Graduate Record Examination (GRE)

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: A Master's Degree is a graduate degree that is pursued after completing a Bachelor's Degree. It is typically the first level of graduate study.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the Master's Degree with a Doctorate Degree, which is a higher level of graduate study.

Explanations: A Master's Degree is the degree beyond a Bachelor's Degree and is also called a graduate degree. It is a higher level of education that typically involves specialized study in a particular field.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Doctorate Degree is a higher level of graduate study beyond a Master's Degree.
Option B: Master's Degree is the correct answer as it is the degree beyond a Bachelor's Degree and is also called a graduate degree.
Option C: Bachelor's Degree is the undergraduate degree, not a graduate degree.
Option D: Associate's Degree is a lower level of education, typically taken before a Bachelor's Degree.

37. What was the real name of the queen of Jhanshi? [Indian Police Service (IPS) Examination-1996]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Manikarnika.

Exam Relevance: Indian Police Service (IPS), Civil Services Examination (CSE)

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The queen of Jhansi, known as Rani Laxmi Bai, was born with the name Manikarnika.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the birth name with the title she was known by, Rani Laxmi Bai.

Explanations: Rani Laxmi Bai, the queen of Jhansi, was born as Manikarnika Tambe. She later became known by her title, Rani Laxmi Bai, during her reign and her fight against the British. The birth name is the correct answer to the question.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Laxmi bai is her title, not her birth name.
Option B: Mayawati is unrelated to Rani Laxmi Bai.
Option C: Manikarnika is her birth name.
Option D: None of the above is incorrect as Manikarnika is the correct birth name.

Mnemonic: Born as Mani, fought as Laxmi.

38. Which is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors? [Jharkhand PSC Examination-1981]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Sodium.

Exam Relevance: GATE, IAS, JEE Advanced, Jharkhand PSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Sodium is commonly used as a coolant in certain types of nuclear reactors due to its high thermal conductivity and low melting point.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse sodium with other metals like mercury, which is also used in some specialized applications but not as commonly for cooling in nuclear reactors.

Explanations: Sodium is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors because it has a high thermal conductivity, which allows it to efficiently transfer heat from the reactor core to the heat exchanger. Additionally, sodium has a low melting point and a high boiling point, making it suitable for operating at high temperatures without vaporizing. These properties make sodium an effective and commonly used coolant in certain types of nuclear reactors.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Zinc is not typically used as a coolant in nuclear reactors due to its lower thermal conductivity and higher melting point compared to sodium.
Option B: Sodium is the correct choice because of its high thermal conductivity and low melting point, making it suitable for cooling in nuclear reactors.
Option C: Calcium is not used as a coolant in nuclear reactors due to its lower thermal conductivity and higher melting point compared to sodium.
Option D: Mercury is used in some specialized applications but is not as commonly used as sodium for cooling in nuclear reactors due to its higher melting point and potential toxicity.

Mnemonic: Sodium: "S" for "Superior" cooling properties.

39. Which National Highway connects Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi? [General Knowledge for Punjab National Bank(IBPS) Examination-1995]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) NH 2.

Exam Relevance: Punjab National Bank(IBPS) Examination, UPSC, SSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: National Highway 2 (NH 2) is a major highway in India that connects Delhi to Kolkata, passing through important cities such as Mathura and Varanasi.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse NH 2 with other national highways that also connect major cities in India.

Explanations: NH 2 is the correct answer because it is the specific national highway that connects Delhi and Kolkata, passing through Mathura and Varanasi. This highway is a significant route in the Indian highway network, facilitating travel and transportation between these major cities.

Option Analysis:

Option A: NH 4 does not connect Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi.
Option B: NH 2 is the correct highway connecting Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi.
Option C: NH 10 does not connect Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi.
Option D: NH 6 does not connect Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi.

40. Ministers in a State get salaries as determined by [NDA NA Examination-1998]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) State Legislature.

Exam Relevance: UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, State PSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The salaries of ministers in a state are determined by the State Legislature.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that the salaries are determined by the Constitution or Parliament, as these are higher authorities in the governance structure.

Explanations: The Constitution of India grants the State Legislature the power to determine the salaries and allowances of ministers in the state government. This is a constitutional provision under Article 166(2) of the Indian Constitution. The State Legislature, which is the legislative body of the state, has the authority to make laws and regulations concerning the salaries of state ministers.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The Constitution does not directly determine the salaries of ministers; it provides the framework for the State Legislature to do so.
Option B: Parliament does not have the authority to determine the salaries of state ministers; this is a state-level function.
Option C: The State Legislature has the authority to determine the salaries of ministers in the state government, as per the Constitution.
Option D: The Governor does not have the authority to determine the salaries of ministers; this is a legislative function.

Mnemonic: State Legislature Sets Salaries (S.L.S.S.)

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