General knowledge MCQ – Change your future

511. Which one of the following is an 'actionable' wrong? [Karnataka Postal Circle Examination-2003]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Injuria sine damnum.

Exam Relevance: Civil Services Examination, Law Entrance Exams, Competitive Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Injuria sine damnum refers to a legal wrong where there is an injury to a legal right without any actual damage or loss. This is actionable in law.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse injuria sine damnum with damnum sine injuria, where there is damage without any legal injury, which is not actionable.

Explanations: Injuria sine damnum is actionable because it involves a violation of a legal right, even if there is no actual damage or loss. This is in contrast to damnum sine injuria, where there is damage but no legal injury, which is not actionable. Therefore, the correct answer is injuria sine damnum.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Injuria sine damnum is actionable as it involves a legal injury without actual damage.
Option B: Incorrect. Damnum sine injuria is not actionable as it involves damage without a legal injury.
Option C: Incorrect. Both options cannot be correct as only injuria sine damnum is actionable.
Option D: Incorrect. This option is not correct as injuria sine damnum is indeed actionable.

512. Identify the correct option from the following statement :-The rate at which RBI borrows money from the commercial banks for short term? [JKPSC Examination-1986]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Reverse Repo rate.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams, Competitive Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows money from commercial banks for a short term. This mechanism is used to absorb liquidity from the banking system.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the Reverse Repo rate with the Repo rate, which is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks.

Explanations: The Reverse Repo rate is the interest rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. This is a tool used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the banking system. When the RBI wants to reduce the money supply in the economy, it increases the Reverse Repo rate, making it more attractive for banks to park their excess funds with the RBI rather than lend them out. This helps in absorbing excess liquidity from the banking system.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks, not the rate at which it borrows from them.
Option B: The Reverse Repo rate is the correct answer as it is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks for a short term.
Option C: The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the percentage of total deposits that commercial banks must maintain in the form of cash, gold, or government-approved securities before providing any other loans or advances. It is not related to borrowing rates.
Option D: This option is incorrect as the correct answer is provided in Option B.

Mnemonic: RBI borrows, Reverse Repo.

513. Who is called as Father of Ayurveda? [HSSPP Examination-2015]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Charaka.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, State PSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Charaka is known as the Father of Ayurveda due to his significant contributions to the field.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Charaka with other ancient Indian scholars such as Varahamihira or Aryabhatta.

Explanations: Charaka is recognized as the Father of Ayurveda because of his seminal work, the Charaka Samhita, which is a foundational text in Ayurvedic medicine. This text provides detailed information on the principles and practices of Ayurveda, making Charaka a pivotal figure in the development and dissemination of Ayurvedic knowledge.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Varahamihira was an Indian astronomer, mathematician, and astrologer, not associated with Ayurveda.
Option B: Charaka is the correct answer as he is known as the Father of Ayurveda.
Option C: Kalidas was a renowned Sanskrit poet and playwright, not associated with Ayurveda.
Option D: Aryabhatta was a mathematician and astronomer, not associated with Ayurveda.

Mnemonic: C-A-R-A: Charaka, Ayurveda, Recognized, Ayurvedic

514. Vitamin which helps in chemical transmission of images from eye to brain is [MPPEB Examination-1995]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Vitamin A.

Exam Relevance: MPPEB, UPSC, SSC, Civil Services

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Vitamin A is essential for maintaining healthy vision, particularly in low light conditions. It is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that is necessary for night vision.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Vitamin A with other vitamins that are important for general health but not specifically for vision.

Explanations: Vitamin A is vital for the chemical transmission of images from the eye to the brain. It is a key component in the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that is essential for vision, especially in low light conditions. Without sufficient Vitamin A, the retina cannot function properly, leading to impaired vision.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Vitamin A is correct as it is essential for vision and the formation of rhodopsin in the retina.
Option B: Vitamin B is important for various metabolic processes but is not specifically linked to vision.
Option C: Vitamin C is crucial for the immune system and collagen production but does not play a direct role in vision.
Option D: Vitamin D is important for bone health and calcium absorption but is not directly involved in vision.

Mnemonic: Remember: "A for Eyes" - Vitamin A is for healthy eyes.

515. Recent years the area under tank irrigation has been decreased. Because. [Railway Accounts (IRAS) Service Indian Examination-1994]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Tanks are non-perennial.

Exam Relevance: Railway Accounts (IRAS) Service, Civil Services, Bank PO

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Tanks are water storage structures that rely on seasonal rainfall for replenishment. Non-perennial tanks do not have a consistent water supply throughout the year, leading to decreased irrigation area.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse perennial and non-perennial tanks, leading to incorrect selection of options.

Explanations: Tanks are water storage structures that depend on seasonal rainfall for water supply. Non-perennial tanks do not have a consistent water supply throughout the year, which can lead to reduced irrigation areas. This is why the area under tank irrigation has decreased in recent years.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Filled with silt is not the primary reason for the decrease in tank irrigation area.
Option B: Costly maintenance can be a factor but is not the main reason for the decrease in tank irrigation area.
Option C: Tanks are non-perennial, meaning they do not have a consistent water supply throughout the year, leading to reduced irrigation areas.
Option D: Workers' problems are not a significant factor in the decrease of tank irrigation area.

516. Which among the following is correct about an Equity Fund ?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) It invests primarily in shares.

Exam Relevance: CAT, GMAT, GRE, CFA

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: An equity fund is a type of mutual fund that primarily invests in stocks or shares of companies.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse equity funds with fixed income funds, which invest in debt instruments and provide fixed returns.

Explanations: An equity fund focuses on investing in shares of companies, aiming to generate returns through capital appreciation and dividends. This aligns with the definition of an equity fund, which primarily invests in the stock market.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Equity funds do not provide fixed returns; their returns can vary based on market performance.
Option B: This is correct as equity funds primarily invest in shares of companies.
Option C: While some funds may invest in both debt and shares, an equity fund specifically focuses on shares.
Option D: Equity funds do not assure growth in value; their performance can fluctuate based on market conditions.

517. To whom dose a judge of the Supreme Court address his resignation if he wants to leave office before his term is complete? [Sikkim PSC Examination-2021]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) President.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, State PSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The resignation of a Supreme Court judge is addressed to the President of India.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly believe that the resignation should be addressed to the Chief Justice of India or the Prime Minister.

Explanations: According to the Constitution of India, a judge of the Supreme Court must address his resignation to the President of India. This is stipulated under Article 125 of the Constitution, which outlines the procedure for the appointment and resignation of judges. The President, as the constitutional head of the executive, is the authority to whom such formal communications must be addressed.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The Chief Justice of India does not receive the resignation of a Supreme Court judge.
Option B: The Prime Minister is not involved in the resignation process of a Supreme Court judge.
Option C: The President of India is the constitutional authority to whom a Supreme Court judge must address his resignation.
Option D: The Union Law Minister is not the recipient of a Supreme Court judge's resignation.

Mnemonic: President, Resignation, Supreme Court

518. When did Charlemagne conquer the Lombards? [Meghalaya Police Examination-2015]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) 774.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, Civil Services, State PSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Charlemagne, the King of the Franks, conquered the Lombards in 774.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the exact year of the conquest, as the dates around 770-774 are close and historically significant.

Explanations: Charlemagne began his campaign against the Lombards in 773, and by 774, he had successfully conquered their kingdom. This conquest was a significant event in the expansion of Charlemagne's empire and marked the end of the Lombard Kingdom in Italy.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 771 is incorrect as it predates the conquest.
Option B: 772 is incorrect as it is before the conquest.
Option C: 773 is incorrect as it is the year the campaign began, not the year of the conquest.
Option D: 774 is correct as it is the year Charlemagne completed the conquest of the Lombards.

519. What is nomination? [SSC CGL Examination-1987]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) It confers a right to the nominee to receive payment of a deposit after death of depositors.

Exam Relevance: SSC CGL, Banking Exams, UPSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Nomination is a process where a depositor can appoint a nominee to receive the payment of a deposit in the event of the depositor's death.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse nomination with legal inheritance or assume it is a part of a will.

Explanations: Nomination is a facility provided by financial institutions to depositors. It allows the depositor to appoint a nominee who will receive the payment of the deposit upon the depositor's death. This process does not involve a will or legal inheritance but is a specific arrangement for the transfer of deposit funds.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Nomination is not a part of a will; it is a separate process for financial deposits.
Option B: While it is a facility given by financial institutions, the specific right conferred is to receive payment after the depositor's death.
Option C: Nomination is not a process of appointing a legal heir but rather a financial arrangement for deposit payment.
Option D: This is the correct definition of nomination, as it confers the right to the nominee to receive the deposit payment after the depositor's death.

Mnemonic: Nomination: Nominee Receives Deposit

520. Light House Act [Civil Services Examination-2021]

Exam Relevance: Civil Services Examination, UPSC, IAS

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Light House Act is a significant piece of legislation in the history of lighthouses in India. It was enacted in 1927 to regulate and manage lighthouses and other navigational aids.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the year of the Light House Act with other significant acts or years in Indian maritime history.

Explanations: The Light House Act was enacted in 1927 to provide a legal framework for the management and maintenance of lighthouses and navigational aids in India. This act was crucial for ensuring the safety of maritime navigation and the regulation of lighthouse operations under a unified authority.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 1921 is incorrect as it predates the actual year of the Light House Act.
Option B: 1925 is incorrect as it is not the year the Light House Act was enacted.
Option C: 1927 is the correct year when the Light House Act was enacted.
Option D: 1929 is incorrect as it is after the actual year of the Light House Act.

Mnemonic: LHA 1927: Lighthouse Act, 1927

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General knowledge MCQ - Set 52

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