Human Resource Management MCQ - Change your future

1101. Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and. Two-way exchange of information between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) High involvement management model.

Exam Relevance: MBA, HRM, Organizational Behavior

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The high involvement management model emphasizes a continuous and two-way exchange of information between superiors and subordinates.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the high involvement management model with other management models that do not emphasize continuous communication.

Explanations: The high involvement management model is characterized by a strong emphasis on communication and collaboration between all levels of the organization. This model fosters an environment where information flows freely in both directions, ensuring that both superiors and subordinates are engaged and informed. This continuous and two-way exchange of information is a core principle of the high involvement management model, making it the correct answer.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The high involvement management model is defined by continuous and two-way communication.
Option B: Incorrect. The low commitment management model does not focus on continuous communication.
Option C: Incorrect. The high performance management model focuses on achieving high performance but does not necessarily emphasize continuous communication.
Option D: Incorrect. The low performance management model is not concerned with continuous communication.

1102. The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Job analysis.

Exam Relevance: HRM exams, Organizational Behavior exams, Management exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Job analysis is the process of determining the duties, responsibilities, and skill requirements of a job, as well as the characteristics of the person who should be hired for it.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse job analysis with job design, which focuses on how tasks are organized within a job, or job recruitment, which is the process of attracting and selecting candidates.

Explanations: Job analysis involves collecting information about the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, as well as the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the job effectively. This process helps in creating job descriptions and job specifications, which are essential for recruitment, selection, and performance evaluation.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. Job analysis is the process of determining the duties, responsibilities, and skill requirements of a job, as well as the characteristics of the person who should be hired for it.
Option B: Incorrect. Job design focuses on how tasks are organized within a job, not on determining the duties and skill requirements.
Option C: Incorrect. Job recruitment is the process of attracting and selecting candidates, not determining the duties and skill requirements of a job.
Option D: Incorrect. Job description is a document that summarizes the duties and responsibilities of a job, but it is a product of job analysis, not the process itself.

Mnemonic: JAD: Job Analysis Determines

1103. In which of the following methods Jobs can be arranged according to the relative difficulty in performing them.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Ranking method.

Exam Relevance: HR Management Exams, MBA Exams, Competitive Recruitment Exams

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The ranking method is a simple technique used to arrange jobs based on their relative difficulty or importance.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the ranking method with other job evaluation methods like the point method or factor comparison method, which involve more detailed analysis.

Explanations: The ranking method involves comparing jobs directly against each other and placing them in order of difficulty or importance. This method is straightforward and does not require complex calculations or detailed criteria, making it suitable for arranging jobs based on relative difficulty.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The ranking method directly compares jobs and ranks them based on difficulty.
Option B: Incorrect. The point method assigns points to jobs based on various factors, not just difficulty.
Option C: Incorrect. The factor comparison method compares jobs against benchmark jobs, not just based on difficulty.
Option D: Incorrect. The classification method categorizes jobs into predefined classes, not based on relative difficulty.

Mnemonic: Ranking: Rank jobs, simple and direct.

1104. Pension plan, in which specific amount of profit is transferred to employees account, that are payable at time of retirement or death is classified as

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Deferred profit sharing plan.

Exam Relevance: CPA, CFA, HR Certification Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A deferred profit sharing plan (DPSP) is a type of pension plan where a specific amount of profit is transferred to employees' accounts, which are payable at the time of retirement or death.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse deferred profit sharing plans with other types of pension plans, such as cash balance plans or savings and thrift plans, which have different structures and funding mechanisms.

Explanations: A deferred profit sharing plan (DPSP) is designed to transfer a specific amount of profit to employees' accounts, which are then payable at the time of retirement or death. This aligns with the description provided in the question. Other options like savings and thrift plans, cash balance plans, and early retirement windows do not fit this specific description.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. A deferred profit sharing plan transfers a specific amount of profit to employees' accounts, payable at retirement or death.
Option B: Incorrect. A savings and thrift plan is a type of defined contribution plan where employees contribute a portion of their salary, not a specific amount of profit.
Option C: Incorrect. A cash balance plan is a type of defined benefit plan that combines features of both defined benefit and defined contribution plans, but it does not specifically transfer a specific amount of profit.
Option D: Incorrect. An early retirement window is a temporary period during which employees can retire early with enhanced benefits, but it does not involve transferring a specific amount of profit to employees' accounts.

1105. A ..... is a method by which the job performance of an employee is documented and evaluated. These are a part of career development and consist of regular reviews of employee performance within organizations.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Performance Appraisal.

Exam Relevance: HRM Exams, Management Exams, MBA Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Performance Appraisal is a systematic process used to evaluate the job performance of employees. It is a key component of career development and involves regular reviews of employee performance within organizations.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Performance Appraisal with other human resource management terms such as Employee Report or Employment Verification, which do not specifically refer to the evaluation of job performance.

Explanations: Performance Appraisal is the correct term because it specifically refers to the method by which the job performance of an employee is documented and evaluated. It is a formal process that includes regular reviews and assessments of employee performance, which are crucial for career development and organizational management.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Perfect Review is not a standard term used in human resource management for evaluating employee performance.
Option B: Employee Report is a general term that could refer to various types of documentation about an employee, but it does not specifically denote the evaluation of job performance.
Option C: Performance Appraisal is the correct term for the systematic evaluation of employee job performance.
Option D: Employment Verification is a process to confirm the employment status of an individual, not an evaluation of job performance.

1106. Which statement is correct.....

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Equitable compensation for the same level.

Exam Relevance: CPA, CFA, HR Certification Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Equitable compensation ensures fairness in pay across similar roles or levels within an organization.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse equitable compensation with equal compensation, which does not account for differences in roles or levels.

Explanations: Equitable compensation means that individuals at the same level or with similar roles should receive comparable pay. This ensures fairness and prevents disparities in compensation for similar work. The phrase "for the same level" is crucial as it specifies that the compensation should be equitable among those who are at the same level or have similar responsibilities.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect because "every level" implies uniform compensation across all levels, which is not equitable.
Option B: Correct because it specifies equitable compensation for individuals at the same level.
Option C: Incorrect because "some level" is vague and does not specify a clear criterion for equitable compensation.
Option D: Incorrect because "any level" is too broad and does not ensure fairness within specific levels.

Mnemonic: Equal pay for equal play.

1107. Understanding career skills and effectively use them for employees is process, known as

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Career management.

Exam Relevance: HRM exams, Management exams, Organizational Behavior exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Career management involves the process of understanding and effectively using career skills for employees.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse career management with career planning, which focuses more on setting goals and making decisions about career paths.

Explanations: Career management is the process of understanding and effectively using career skills for employees. It involves ongoing activities such as skill assessment, development, and application to enhance career progression and organizational fit. This process is distinct from career planning, which is more about setting goals and making decisions about career paths. Therefore, the correct answer is career management.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Career refers to the overall progression of a person's work experience and professional development, not the process of managing skills.
Option B: Career management involves the process of understanding and effectively using career skills for employees, making it the correct answer.
Option C: Career planning focuses on setting goals and making decisions about career paths, not the ongoing management of skills.
Option D: Career development is about the growth and advancement of an individual's career, not the process of managing skills.

1108. An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of the objections raised by alleged employee is called

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) De-novo enquiry.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A de-novo enquiry is a fresh investigation conducted when an initial enquiry is deemed insufficient or when new evidence or objections arise.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse de-novo enquiry with ex-parte enquiry, which is conducted without the presence of the employee.

Explanations: A de-novo enquiry is conducted afresh because of objections raised by the alleged employee. This ensures a fair and unbiased investigation, addressing any concerns or new evidence that may have been overlooked in the initial enquiry.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. De-novo enquiry is a fresh investigation conducted due to objections raised by the employee.
Option B: Incorrect. Ex-parte enquiry is conducted without the presence of the employee, not due to objections.
Option C: Incorrect. Domestic enquiry is an internal investigation within an organization, not specifically for objections raised.
Option D: Incorrect. This is not the correct term for the described scenario.

Mnemonic: De-novo: "Do it anew"

1109. This law defines the employment relationship between an employee and an employer.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.

Exam Relevance: Human Resources Management, Labor Law Exams, Employment Law Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (FLSA) establishes minimum wage, overtime pay eligibility, recordkeeping, and youth employment standards affecting employees in the private sector and in Federal, State, and local governments.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the FLSA with other labor laws such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964 or the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, which focus on discrimination rather than employment standards.

Explanations: The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (FLSA) defines the employment relationship by setting standards for minimum wage, overtime pay, and recordkeeping. It applies to employees in both the private and public sectors, making it a foundational law in defining the employment relationship.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The FLSA defines the employment relationship by setting standards for minimum wage, overtime pay, and recordkeeping.
Option B: Incorrect. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 focuses on prohibiting age discrimination in employment, not defining the employment relationship.
Option C: Incorrect. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 focuses on prohibiting discrimination against individuals with disabilities, not defining the employment relationship.
Option D: Incorrect. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 focuses on prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin, not defining the employment relationship.

Mnemonic: FLSA: Fair, Legal, Standards, Act

1110. The minimum qualifications required by a particular job such as education and experience is called.....

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Job specification.

Exam Relevance: HR Management, Organizational Behavior, Human Resources Certification

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Job specification refers to the minimum qualifications and requirements needed for a job, including education, experience, and skills.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse job specification with job description, which outlines the duties and responsibilities of a job.

Explanations: Job specification defines the minimum qualifications and requirements needed for a job, such as education and experience. This is distinct from job analysis, which involves gathering information about the job's tasks and responsibilities, and job description, which outlines the duties and responsibilities of the job. Job title is simply the name given to the position.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Job analysis involves gathering information about the job's tasks and responsibilities, not the qualifications needed.
Option B: Job title is the name given to the position, not the qualifications needed.
Option C: Job description outlines the duties and responsibilities of the job, not the qualifications needed.
Option D: Job specification defines the minimum qualifications and requirements needed for a job, including education and experience.

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Human Resource Management MCQ - Set 111

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