Computer networking MCQ questions for GATE/NET

Computer networking MCQ

Question 1
Address FE80::12 is a
A
link local address
B
site local address
C
multicast address
D
loop back address






Question 2
..... substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.
A
B4B8
B
HDB3
C
B8ZS
D
none of the above
Question 3
In Asynchronous Balanced Mode (ABM), link is
A
unidirectional
B
bidirectional
C
point to point
D
multipoint






Question 4
AAl2 is useful for
A
Constant bit rate
B
Variable bit rate
C
Connection oriented packet data
D
Connectionless packet data
Question 5
Term that means data is sent over four wires at same time is
A
4S
B
4D
C
4W
D
4R






Question 6
In satellite communication, up-link frequency and downlink frequencies are different because:
A
By this method interference can be avoided
B
By this method full duplex operation can be carried out.
C
This is the usual convention in satellite communication.
D
None of the above
Question 7
An ARP request is normally.....
A
broadcast
B
multicast
C
unicast
D
none of the above






Question 8
In transport layer, a message is normally divided into transmittable
A
Segments
B
Signals
C
Networks
D
Frames
Question 9
The time required to examine the packet's header and determine where to direct the packet is part of
A
Processing delay
B
Queuing delay
C
Transmission delay
D
All of the mentioned






Question 10
Internet Protocol Control Protocol (IPCP) has a protocol field value of
A
0?8021
B
0?8023
C
0?8025
D
0?8027
Question 11
H.323 uses G.71 or G.723.1 for
A
Compression
B
Communication
C
Controlling
D
Conferencing






Question 12
In Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP), A source sends a bye message to shut down a
A
System
B
Frames
C
Protocol
D
Stream
Question 13
..... means combining several streams of traffic into one stream.
A
Translation
B
Mixing
C
both a and b
D
none of the above






Question 14
Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
A
HTTP version number
B
URL
C
Method
D
None of the mentioned
Question 15
A Bluetooth network is called a.....
A
piconet
B
scatternet
C
bluenet
D
none of the above






Question 16
The EIA-232 interface has..... pins.
A
20
B
24
C
25
D
30
Question 17
Which topology is used in Ethernet?
A
Bus Topology
B
Ring Topology
C
Tree Topology
D
Mesh Topology
Question 17 Explanation: 
In ethernet bus topology is used. In this topology all the nodes in the network are connected to a single cable called bus.






Question 18
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), implements an error control mechanism to provide
A
Unreliablity
B
Availibilty
C
Security
D
Reliablity
Question 19
Size of TCP segment header ranges between
A
16 and 32 bytes
B
16 and 32 bits
C
20 and 60 bytes
D
20 and 60 bits
Question 19 Explanation: 
The header is 20 bytes if there are no options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.






Question 20
A program or a script to be run at client site are called
A
Web Documents
B
HyperLink Documents
C
Static Documents
D
Active Documents
Question 21
Piggybacking is used to improve bidirectional protocol's
A
performance
B
timing
C
efficiency
D
error control






Question 22
Slot time for gigabit Ethernet is
A
0.312
B
0.412
C
0.512
D
0.612
Question 23
The amount of uncertainty is a system of symbol is called
A
Bandwidth
B
Loss
C
Entropy
D
Quantum






Question 24
Last step in Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) is
A
Quantization
B
Sampling
C
Encoding
D
Modulation
Question 25
When IPv4 protocol sends a datagra, M it copies current value of counter to identification field and increments counter by
A
1
B
0
C
-1
D
2






Question 26
The type of encoding in which manipulation of bit streams without regard to what the bits mean is.....
A
Destination encoding
B
Entropy encoding
C
Source encoding
D
Differential encoding
Question 27
What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
A
01xxxxxx
B
0xxxxxxx
C
10xxxxxx
D
110xxxxx
Question 27 Explanation: 
The range of a Class B network address is 128-191. This makes our binary range 10xxxxxx.






Question 28
Which of the following to be considered as a broadband communication?
A
Fiber optics
B
Multiplexing
C
Microwave circuit
D
Both a and c
Question 29
Automatic protection switching in linear network is defined at the
A
line layer
B
section layer
C
photonic layer
D
path layer






Question 30
The input and output ports of a router perform the..... layer functions of the router.
A
physical and data link
B
network
C
transport
D
none of the above
Question 31
Transmission media which can be used in LAN is
A
satellite
B
microwave
C
coaxial cable
D
fiber optics






Question 32
CIDR stands for
A
Class Interdomain Routing
B
Classful Interdomain Routing
C
Classless Information Routing
D
Classless Interdomain Routing
Question 33
LANs can be connected by a device called.....
A
Routers
B
Modems
C
Ethernet card
D
Bridges






Question 34
Clear To Send frame in CSMA/CA handshake can prevent from
A
Data overlap
B
Distort signals
C
Frames overlap
D
Collision
Question 35
Entities of network management system have an initial configuration when network is set up, but can change with
A
Server
B
Time
C
Entity
D
Proxy






Question 36
The association identifier in SCTP is.....
A
a unique verification tag
B
a combination of logical and port addresses
C
either a or b
D
none of the above
Question 37
Radio waves are
A
unidirectional
B
omnidirectional
C
bidirectional
D
directional






Question 38
Manchester code is a
A
non-return to zero code
B
polar code
C
both (a) and (b)
D
none of these
Question 38 Explanation: 
In bipolar code, the singal varies among three levels. In non-return to zero code, the signal remains the same through-out the bit cell. In unipolar code, there will be no signal either below zero or above zero. In Manchester code, the signal level will not vary in the middle and is unipolar.
Question 39
Concept of Iridium system was Initiated by
A
Siemens
B
Motorola
C
Samsung
D
Nokia






Question 40
The basic function of the e-mail system to intimate the originator what happened to the message transmitted is.....
A
Disposition
B
Reporting
C
Displaying
D
Composition
There are 40 questions to complete.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *