Research aptitude set 183

By | February 25, 2018

Research Aptitude MCQ QUESTION ANSWERS UGC NET

Question 1
Followings are the advantages of secondary data except
A
Low cost
B
Spontaneity
C
Non-Reactivity
D
Selective survival
Question 2
When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables, it is very important to avoid........
A
checking the strength of relationship
B
expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient
C
checking the direction of the relationship
D
jumping to the conclusion of causality
Question 3
The number of questionnaires returned or completed divided by the total number of eligible people who were contacted or asked to participate in the survey is called the
A
Response rate
B
Participation rate
C
Inflation rate
D
None of the given options
Question 4
Field Observation is always
A
Complex
B
Neutral
C
Subjective
D
Objective
Question 5
In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the administration of a treatment condition is........
A
Not highly variable
B
Highly variable
C
Moving at a steep rate of change
D
None of the above
Question 6
Third step in problem formulation is
A
Statement of the problem
B
Understanding the nature of the problem
C
Survey the available literature
D
Discussion
Question 7
Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?
A
Validation
B
Validity
C
Reliability
D
Prediction
Question 8
Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?
A
Convenience sampling
B
Quota sampling
C
Purposive sampling
D
Random sampling
Question 9
Analysis of covariance is
A
A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables
B
A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
C
A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
D
Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
Question 10
The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal explanatory value, one should select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and succinct is known as........
A
rule of parsimony
B
guide of simplicity
C
criterion of falsifiability
D
critical theory
Question 11
In Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) the psychologist puts questions like
A
What does the picture mean to the subject?
B
What can be the factors that have led to the situation?
C
What will be the outcome?
D
All of these.
Question 12
A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor readers' reading achievement. He looks at two different schools. One serves as the control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile. During the time that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group, a statewide reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. The experimental, but not the control school is involved in the initiative. At the end of the year, the experimental group does better than the control. From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the study is
A
Selection-history effect
B
Selection by mortality interaction
C
Selection-maturation effect
D
Mortality
Question 13
Fundamental basis of hypothesis is
A
The operational level
B
The conceptual level
C
Both of the above
D
None of the above
Question 14
The importance of thesis writing lies in
A
Expansion of knowledge
B
Presentation of conclusion for information
C
Verification of validity
D
All of the above
Question 15
Which is not a direct there at to the internal validity of a research design?
A
Testing
B
Differential selection
C
History
D
Sampling error
Question 16
The limit of the probability sample is
A
It is not giving guarantee of representativeness of the sample from a population
B
The data do not fulfil the standards of the normal probability curve
C
It has great risk of generalization of the results
D
All the above
There are 16 questions to complete.

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