Computer networking MCQ – Change your future

821. For very small businesses or for home use .

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Peer-to-peer networks.

Exam Relevance: IT Essentials, CompTIA A+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Peer-to-peer networks are simpler and more cost-effective for small businesses or home use because they do not require dedicated servers.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse peer-to-peer networks with client/server networks, which are more complex and require dedicated servers.

Explanations: Peer-to-peer networks allow each computer to act as both a client and a server, sharing resources directly with each other. This makes them ideal for small environments where the overhead of a dedicated server is unnecessary and cost-prohibitive.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Client/server networks require a dedicated server, making them less suitable for very small businesses or home use.
Option B: Peer-to-peer networks are simpler and more cost-effective, making them ideal for small environments.
Option C: Ring networks are not typically used in small business or home environments due to their complexity and specific requirements.
Option D: Bus networks are less common in modern setups and are not as flexible as peer-to-peer networks for small environments.

Mnemonic: P2P for small, no server needed.

822. You want to totally reinitialize the router and replace the current running-config with the current startup-config. What command will you use?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Reload.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CCNP, Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The reload command is used to restart the router, which will clear the current running configuration and load the startup configuration.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the reload command with the copy command, which is used to copy configurations between running and startup configurations.

Explanations: The reload command is the only option that will clear the current running configuration and load the startup configuration. The other options do not achieve this purpose. The reload command restarts the router, which will clear the current running configuration and load the startup configuration.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The replace run start command does not exist in Cisco IOS.
Option B: The copy run start command saves the current running configuration to the startup configuration, but does not replace the running configuration.
Option C: The copy start run command copies the startup configuration to the running configuration, but does not clear the current running configuration.
Option D: The reload command restarts the router, clearing the current running configuration and loading the startup configuration.

Mnemonic: Reload, Restart, Replace

823. Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Show ipospf neighbor.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CCNP, JNCIA, JNCIS

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The "show ip ospf neighbor" command in OSPF displays a list of OSPF adjacencies, which are the neighboring routers with which the device has established OSPF relationships.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the "show ip ospf neighbor" command with other OSPF show commands, such as "show ip ospf interface" or "show ip ospf", which do not specifically list OSPF adjacencies.

Explanations: The "show ip ospf neighbor" command is specifically designed to display the OSPF adjacencies, which are the neighboring routers with which the device has established OSPF relationships. This command provides detailed information about the state of the OSPF adjacency, including the neighbor's router ID, interface, and state. Other commands like "show ip ospf interface" and "show ip ospf" provide different information and do not list OSPF adjacencies.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The "show ip ospf interface" command displays information about the OSPF interfaces, not the OSPF adjacencies.
Option B: The "show ip ospf" command displays general OSPF information, including the OSPF process ID and the router ID, but does not list OSPF adjacencies.
Option C: The "show ip route" command displays the routing table, not OSPF adjacencies.
Option D: The "show ip ospf neighbor" command correctly lists OSPF adjacencies.

Mnemonic: Neighbor = N, OSPF = O, Command = C; N-O-C

824. In AT, M the..... class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) CBR.

Exam Relevance: Networking exams, Telecommunications exams, Computer Science exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: CBR (Constant Bit Rate) is designed for real-time audio or video services, providing a consistent and predictable data rate similar to a dedicated line.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse CBR with VBR (Variable Bit Rate), which is used for non-real-time services where the bit rate can vary.

Explanations: CBR is specifically designed for real-time services like audio or video, ensuring a constant data rate. This consistency is crucial for real-time applications, making it similar to the service provided by a dedicated line such as a T line. VBR, ABR, and UBR do not provide the same level of consistency and predictability required for real-time services.

Option Analysis:

Option A: CBR is the correct choice as it provides a constant bit rate, suitable for real-time services.
Option B: VBR (Variable Bit Rate) is not suitable for real-time services as it allows the bit rate to vary.
Option C: ABR (Available Bit Rate) is not designed for real-time services and does not guarantee a constant bit rate.
Option D: UBR (Unspecified Bit Rate) does not provide any guarantees on the bit rate, making it unsuitable for real-time services.

Mnemonic: CBR: Constant Bit Rate, Consistent for Real-time

825. Bit Rate is number of bits sent in

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) 1sec.

Exam Relevance: GATE, GRE, CCNA, CEH

Difficulty: Very Easy

Concept notes: Bit Rate is the number of bits transmitted per second.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse bit rate with other time-based measurements, such as baud rate or data transfer rate.

Explanations: Bit Rate is defined as the number of bits sent in one second. This is a fundamental concept in digital communication and data transmission.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct, as bit rate is measured per second.
Option B: Incorrect, as bit rate is not measured over 2 seconds.
Option C: Incorrect, as bit rate is not measured over 10 seconds.
Option D: Incorrect, as bit rate is not measured over 100 seconds.

826. National Internet Service Provider (ISP) networks are connected to one another by private switching stations called

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Peering Points.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, Data Communications, Network Engineering

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Peering points are private switching stations where different Internet Service Providers (ISPs) interconnect to exchange traffic directly.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse peering points with network access points, which are public interconnection points for ISPs.

Explanations: Peering points are private agreements between ISPs to directly exchange traffic, reducing the need to route traffic through third-party networks. This direct connection improves efficiency and reduces costs. Network Access Points (NAPs) are public interconnection points, not private agreements between ISPs.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Network Access Points are public interconnection points, not private agreements between ISPs.
Option B: Peering Points are the correct answer as they are private switching stations where ISPs directly exchange traffic.
Option C: National ISP refers to a type of ISP, not a switching station.
Option D: Regional ISP refers to a type of ISP, not a switching station.

827. Darlene is away at college. She is attempting to send her aunt an e-mail message. She is able to receive e-mail but cannot send any e-mail. Which protocol does Darlene need to troubleshoot?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) SMTP.

Exam Relevance: CompTIA Network+, CIW Internet Business Associate

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails. POP and IMAP are used for receiving emails, while HTTP is used for web browsing.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse SMTP with POP or IMAP, which are protocols for receiving emails, not sending them.

Explanations: SMTP is the protocol responsible for sending emails. Since Darlene can receive emails but cannot send any, the issue lies with the sending protocol, which is SMTP. POP and IMAP are used for receiving emails, and HTTP is used for web browsing, not for sending emails.

Option Analysis:

Option A: POP is used for receiving emails, not sending them.
Option B: IMAP is also used for receiving emails, not sending them.
Option C: SMTP is the protocol used for sending emails, which is the issue Darlene is facing.
Option D: HTTP is used for web browsing, not for sending emails.

Mnemonic: SMTP: Send Mail Through Protocol

828. When buffers become full, link-level flow control provides feedback that prevents the transmission of additional packets, is known as

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Backpressure.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, Network Fundamentals

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Backpressure is a mechanism in network communication where a device signals to a sender to reduce the rate of data transmission when its buffers are full.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse backpressure with congestion control, which operates at a higher level and involves managing network traffic to prevent congestion.

Explanations: Backpressure is a form of link-level flow control that prevents the transmission of additional packets when buffers become full. It provides feedback to the sender to slow down the transmission rate, thereby preventing buffer overflow and ensuring smooth data flow.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Congestion controller operates at a higher level and manages network traffic to prevent congestion, not at the link level.
Option B: Outsidepressure is not a standard term in network communication and does not relate to flow control mechanisms.
Option C: Backpressure is the correct term for the mechanism that provides feedback to prevent additional packet transmission when buffers are full.
Option D: Insidepressure is not a standard term in network communication and does not relate to flow control mechanisms.

Mnemonic: Buffer full, send back, slow down.

829. ..... uses four twisted pairs.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) 1000Base-T.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, CIW Network Specialist

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: 1000Base-T is a standard for Gigabit Ethernet over twisted pair cables.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse 1000Base-T with other standards like 1000Base-SX or 1000Base-LX, which use fiber optics instead of twisted pair cables.

Explanations: 1000Base-T uses four twisted pairs of Category 5 or higher cable to achieve Gigabit Ethernet speeds. Each pair is used for both transmitting and receiving data, allowing for full-duplex communication. This standard is designed for use over existing twisted pair infrastructure, making it a popular choice for Ethernet networks.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 1000Base-SX uses short-wavelength (850 nm) fiber optics, not twisted pairs.
Option B: 1000Base-LX uses long-wavelength (1300 nm) fiber optics, not twisted pairs.
Option C: 1000Base-T uses four twisted pairs of Category 5 or higher cable.
Option D: This option is incorrect as 1000Base-T is the correct standard that uses twisted pairs.

Mnemonic: Think "T" for "Twisted Pairs" in 1000Base-T.

830. A session symmetric key between two parties is used

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Only once.

Exam Relevance: CISSP, CompTIA Security+, CISA

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A session symmetric key is used for secure communication between two parties during a single session. After the session ends, the key is discarded and a new key is generated for the next session.

Common Mistakes: Students often misunderstand that symmetric keys can be reused multiple times for different sessions, which is not secure and goes against best practices in cryptography.

Explanations: A session symmetric key is designed to be used only once for a single session. This ensures that even if the key is compromised, it cannot be used to decrypt past or future communications. The key is discarded after the session ends, and a new key is generated for subsequent sessions. This practice enhances security by limiting the exposure of the key to a single session.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The session symmetric key is used only once for a single session.
Option B: Incorrect. Using the key twice would compromise security.
Option C: Incorrect. Reusing the key multiple times would increase the risk of interception and compromise.
Option D: Incorrect. The use of the key is not conditional; it is strictly used once per session.

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Computer networking MCQ - Set 83

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