General knowledge MCQ

1201. Which part of an atom moves to create current? [MPSC Examination-2021]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Electron.

Exam Relevance: GATE, GRE, MCAT, NEET

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: In an atom, electrons are the negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus. They are the only particles that can move freely within and between atoms, thus creating electric current.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse protons and neutrons with electrons because they are all components of an atom. However, only electrons are mobile and can move to create current.

Explanations: Electrons are the particles within an atom that can move freely. When a voltage is applied, these electrons move from one atom to another, creating an electric current. Protons and neutrons are bound within the nucleus and do not move freely, thus they do not contribute to the flow of electric current.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Protons are positively charged particles located in the nucleus and do not move to create current.
Option B: Neutrons are neutral particles located in the nucleus and do not move to create current.
Option C: Electrons are negatively charged particles that can move freely and create electric current.
Option D: This option is incorrect as electrons are the correct answer.

Mnemonic: E for Electrons, E for Electric Current.

1202. Europe is separated from Africa by sea? [The Insurance Sector of India Examination-2001]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Strait Of Gibraltar, Atlantic Ocean.

Exam Relevance: Insurance Sector of India Examination, Geography Olympiad, Civil Services Examination

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow waterway that separates the Iberian Peninsula in Europe from Morocco in Africa, connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the geographical features and think that the Pacific Ocean separates Europe and Africa.

Explanations: The Strait of Gibraltar is the body of water that separates Europe from Africa. It connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. Therefore, the correct answer is the Strait of Gibraltar, Atlantic Ocean.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The Strait of Gibraltar is the waterway that separates Europe from Africa, and it is part of the Atlantic Ocean.
Option B: Incorrect. The Pacific Ocean is not involved in separating Europe and Africa.
Option C: Incorrect. This is too vague and does not specify the correct geographical feature.
Option D: Incorrect. While the Atlantic Ocean is involved, it does not specify the exact location (Strait of Gibraltar).

Mnemonic: Gibraltar Gate, Atlantic Gate

1203. Major church of which of the following European country has become the first to conduct same-sex marriages?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Sweden.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, GRE, GMAT

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The question tests knowledge of European countries and their religious institutions, specifically regarding the recognition of same-sex marriages within major churches.

Common Mistakes: Students might confuse the policies of different Scandinavian countries regarding same-sex marriage, leading to incorrect answers.

Explanations: Sweden's major church, the Church of Sweden, has become the first to conduct same-sex marriages. This reflects the progressive stance of the Church of Sweden in aligning with the broader societal acceptance of same-sex relationships. The Church of Sweden began performing same-sex marriages in 2009, following the legalization of same-sex marriage in Sweden in 2009.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct. The Church of Sweden has been conducting same-sex marriages since 2009.
Option B: Incorrect. While Norway has legalized same-sex marriage, its major church has not been the first to conduct same-sex marriages.
Option C: Incorrect. Denmark has legalized same-sex marriage, but its major church has not been the first to conduct same-sex marriages.
Option D: Incorrect. Canada is not a European country, and thus is not relevant to the question.

Mnemonic: S-C-S: Sweden, Church, Same-sex

1204. NITI Aayog was formed on? [University Grants Commission Examination-1986]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) 1 January 2015.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Banking Exams, State PSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: NITI Aayog, the National Institution for Transforming India, was established on 1 January 2015.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the date with other significant dates in Indian governance or policy-making.

Explanations: NITI Aayog was officially formed on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. This date is significant as it marks the beginning of a new era in India's policy-making and governance structure.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect, as NITI Aayog was not formed on 1 January 2014.
Option B: Correct, as NITI Aayog was formed on 1 January 2015.
Option C: Incorrect, as NITI Aayog was not formed on 1 July 2015.
Option D: Incorrect, as NITI Aayog was not formed on 1 July 2014.

Mnemonic: NITI Aayog, New Year's Day, 2015.

1205. How many children were born to Devaki and Vasudeva before Krishna? [Kerala High Court Examination-2017]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) 7.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, SSC, Bank PO, State PSC

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In Hindu mythology, Devaki and Vasudeva are the parents of Krishna. According to the Puranas, Devaki gave birth to eight children, but Krishna was the eighth and final child. The first seven children were killed by Kamsa, Devaki's brother and the king of Mathura.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the number of children with other mythological figures or may not be familiar with the specific details of Krishna's birth story.

Explanations: Devaki and Vasudeva had eight children in total. However, the first seven children were killed by Kamsa, who was afraid of a prophecy that predicted his death at the hands of Devaki's eighth child. Krishna, the eighth child, was saved and raised in Gokul. Therefore, the number of children born to Devaki and Vasudeva before Krishna is 7.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect, as the number of children born before Krishna is not 3.
Option B: Incorrect, as the number of children born before Krishna is not 5.
Option C: Correct, as the number of children born before Krishna is 7.
Option D: Incorrect, as Krishna is the eighth child, not the seventh.

Mnemonic: Devaki's seven, then Krishna's eighth.

1206. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bonds is [General Knowledge for Delhi Andaman and Nicobar Islands Police Service (DANIPS) Examination-2002]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) KCN.

Exam Relevance: Delhi Andaman and Nicobar Islands Police Service (DANIPS), Civil Services Examination (CSE), State PSC Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: KCN (potassium cyanide) contains both ionic and covalent bonds. The potassium ion (K+) and the cyanide ion (CN-) are held together by an ionic bond, while the carbon and nitrogen atoms within the cyanide ion are held together by a covalent bond.

Common Mistakes: Students may mistakenly think that all compounds with metals and nonmetals are purely ionic, overlooking the possibility of covalent bonds within polyatomic ions.

Explanations: KCN consists of a potassium ion (K+) and a cyanide ion (CN-). The potassium ion and the cyanide ion are held together by an ionic bond. Within the cyanide ion, the carbon and nitrogen atoms are bonded covalently. This makes KCN a compound that contains both ionic and covalent bonds.

Option Analysis:

Option A: CH4 (methane) is a purely covalent compound, with no ionic bonds present.
Option B: H2 (hydrogen gas) is a diatomic molecule held together by covalent bonds, with no ionic bonds present.
Option C: NaCl (sodium chloride) is a purely ionic compound, with no covalent bonds present.
Option D: KCN (potassium cyanide) contains both ionic and covalent bonds, making it the correct answer.

Mnemonic: KCN: Keep Covalent, Not Ionic

1207. Which of the following is not a public sector bank in India? [Maharashtra Postal Circle Examination-2013]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Federal Bank.

Exam Relevance: SSC, IBPS, SBI, RBI Grade B, UPSC

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: Federal Bank is a private sector bank in India, while IDBI Bank, Vijaya Bank, and Andhra Bank are public sector banks.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse Federal Bank with public sector banks due to its long-standing presence in the Indian banking sector.

Explanations: Federal Bank is a private sector bank, which means it is not owned or controlled by the government. In contrast, IDBI Bank, Vijaya Bank, and Andhra Bank are public sector banks, which are majority-owned by the government of India. Therefore, Federal Bank is the only private sector bank among the options provided.

Option Analysis:

Option A: IDBI Bank is a public sector bank.
Option B: Vijaya Bank is a public sector bank.
Option C: Andhra Bank is a public sector bank.
Option D: Federal Bank is a private sector bank.

1208. Consider the following statements regarding 'Kyoto Protocol': It is legally binding for Annex I countries. It emerged from the deliberations of COP-3 to the UNFCCC. The signatories have to reduce their individual Green House Gas emissions by 5.2% from 1990 level. Which among the above Statement(s) is/are correct?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) 1 and 2.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, GRE, GMAT

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding international treaty that was adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005. It emerged from the deliberations of the third Conference of the Parties (COP-3) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The Protocol requires Annex I countries (industrialized countries) to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to assume that all signatories to the Kyoto Protocol have to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions by the same percentage. In reality, the reduction targets vary among countries.

Explanations: The Kyoto Protocol is legally binding for Annex I countries, which are primarily industrialized nations. It emerged from the deliberations of COP-3 to the UNFCCC. However, the third statement is incorrect because the Protocol does not mandate a uniform 5.2% reduction for all signatories. Instead, it sets different targets for different countries based on their historical emissions and economic capabilities.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect because it only includes the second statement, which is correct, but omits the first correct statement.
Option B: Correct because it includes both the first and second statements, which are correct.
Option C: Incorrect because it includes the second and third statements, but the third statement is incorrect.
Option D: Incorrect because it includes all three statements, but the third statement is incorrect.

1209. Most important source of capital formation in India has been [MPPSC Examination-1996]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) Household savings.

Exam Relevance: UPSC, MPPSC, SSC, Banking Exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Household savings are a significant source of capital formation in India. Capital formation refers to the accumulation of physical assets used for production, and household savings contribute to this by providing funds for investment.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the role of government revenue surplus or corporate savings as the primary source of capital formation, overlooking the substantial contribution of household savings.

Explanations: Household savings are a crucial component of capital formation in India. These savings are often channeled into financial markets, which in turn provide funds for investment in various sectors. Public sector savings and government revenue surpluses also contribute to capital formation, but household savings have historically been the most significant source. Corporate savings, while important, are not as substantial as household savings in terms of overall contribution to capital formation.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Household savings are the most important source of capital formation in India.
Option B: Public sector savings contribute to capital formation but are not the most significant source.
Option C: Government revenue surpluses are important but not the primary source of capital formation.
Option D: Corporate savings are significant but not as substantial as household savings in terms of capital formation.

1210. The United States in located in [Karnataka PSC Examination-2006]

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) North America.

Exam Relevance: Karnataka PSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank PO

Difficulty: Very Easy

Concept notes: The United States is a country located in the continent of North America.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the location of the United States with other continents such as South America or Africa.

Explanations: The United States is situated in North America, which is one of the seven continents of the world. It is bordered by Canada to the north and Mexico to the south, and it is not located in South America or Africa.

Option Analysis:

Option A: South America is incorrect as it is a different continent located in the Southern Hemisphere.
Option B: Africa is incorrect as it is a different continent located in the Eastern Hemisphere.
Option C: North America is the correct continent where the United States is located.
Option D: None of the above is incorrect as North America is the correct answer.

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General knowledge MCQ - Set 121

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