Computer networking MCQ

1061. Address space of IPv4 is

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (A) 4294967296.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The address space of IPv4 is the total number of unique IP addresses available in the IPv4 system.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the exact number due to similar values or rounding errors.

Explanations: IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, which means the total number of unique addresses is 2^32. Calculating 2^32 gives 4294967296.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Correct, as 2^32 equals 4294967296.
Option B: Incorrect, as the value is slightly less than the correct number.
Option C: Incorrect, as the value is significantly less than the correct number.
Option D: Incorrect, as the value is significantly more than the correct number.

1062. In IPv6 Addresses, field of prefixes for provider-based unicast address that defines identity of node connected to a subnet is called

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Node identifier.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: In IPv6 addresses, the node identifier is the part of the address that uniquely identifies a specific device or node on a subnet.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the node identifier with the subnet identifier, which defines the specific subnet within a network.

Explanations: The node identifier in IPv6 addresses is the field that defines the identity of the node connected to a subnet. It is a unique identifier for the device within the context of the subnet. The other options refer to different parts of the IPv6 address structure: the subnet identifier defines the specific subnet, the provider identifier is related to the service provider, and the subscriber identifier is related to the customer or organization.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The subnet identifier defines the specific subnet within a network, not the identity of the node.
Option B: The provider identifier is related to the service provider, not the identity of the node.
Option C: The subscriber identifier is related to the customer or organization, not the identity of the node.
Option D: The node identifier is the correct term for the field that defines the identity of the node connected to a subnet.

Mnemonic: Node = N for Node, N for Network

1063. Schemes that reduce traffic when the collective traffic of all nodes is too large for the network to handle, refers to

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) Congestion control.

Exam Relevance: Computer Networks, Data Communications, Network Security

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Congestion control refers to the set of strategies and protocols used to manage the flow of data in a network to prevent congestion and ensure efficient data transmission.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse congestion control with congestion avoidance, which is a subset of congestion control focused on preventing congestion rather than managing it once it occurs.

Explanations: Congestion control is the overarching term for schemes that manage network traffic to prevent congestion. It includes mechanisms to reduce traffic when the collective traffic of all nodes exceeds the network's capacity. This ensures that the network remains stable and efficient, preventing data loss and delays.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Congestion controller refers to a specific component or device that implements congestion control, not the overall concept.
Option B: Congestion control is the correct term for the overall concept of managing network traffic to prevent congestion.
Option C: Header refers to the part of a data packet that contains control information, not a scheme for managing network traffic.
Option D: Phits is not a standard term in network management and does not relate to traffic reduction schemes.

1064. Which of the following divides the high speed signal into frequency bands?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Frequency-division multiplexer.

Exam Relevance: Networking exams, Telecommunications exams, Digital Communications exams

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: A frequency-division multiplexer divides a high-speed signal into multiple frequency bands, allowing multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over a single channel.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse frequency-division multiplexing with time-division multiplexing, which divides signals based on time slots rather than frequency bands.

Explanations: A frequency-division multiplexer (FDM) is designed to split a high-speed signal into different frequency bands. This allows multiple signals to be transmitted over a single channel by assigning each signal to a different frequency band. This method is particularly useful in scenarios where multiple signals need to be transmitted simultaneously without interference. The other options, such as T-switch and modem, do not perform this specific function of dividing signals into frequency bands.

Option Analysis:

Option A: A T-switch is used for switching and routing signals in a telephone network, not for dividing signals into frequency bands.
Option B: A modem is used for converting digital signals to analog signals and vice versa, not for dividing signals into frequency bands.
Option C: A frequency-division multiplexer divides a high-speed signal into multiple frequency bands, allowing multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over a single channel.
Option D: A time-division multiplexer divides signals based on time slots, not frequency bands.

Mnemonic: FDM: Frequency Division Multiplexing

1065. Consider the following Statements: High network traffic can lead to collisions of data packets. A LAN usually requires a login to access the network Digital signatures are used to validate the authenticity of a signature and is legally binding. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) Only 1, 2, 3.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: The statements about high network traffic leading to collisions, the requirement of a login for LAN access, and the use of digital signatures for legal validation are all true.

Common Mistakes: Students may incorrectly assume that a LAN does not require a login, or that digital signatures are not legally binding.

Explanations: High network traffic can indeed lead to collisions of data packets, especially in shared media environments like Ethernet. A LAN typically requires a login to access the network, ensuring security and user authentication. Digital signatures are used to validate the authenticity of a signature and are legally binding in many jurisdictions, providing a secure method for electronic transactions and documents.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Incorrect because it omits the third statement about digital signatures.
Option B: Incorrect because it omits the first statement about network traffic collisions.
Option C: Correct as it includes all three true statements.
Option D: Incorrect because it omits the second statement about LAN login requirements.

1066. Internet has been using a checksum of

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) 16 bit.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: The Internet Protocol (IP) uses a 16-bit checksum for error detection in the header of each packet.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the checksum size with other common bit sizes used in networking, such as 8-bit or 32-bit fields.

Explanations: The Internet Protocol (IP) uses a 16-bit checksum to ensure the integrity of the header information. This checksum is calculated over the header fields and is used to detect errors that might have occurred during transmission. The 16-bit size is sufficient for the header error detection in IP packets.

Option Analysis:

Option A: 2-bit checksum is too small for effective error detection in IP headers.
Option B: 4-bit checksum is also insufficient for reliable error detection in IP headers.
Option C: 8-bit checksum is not used in IP headers; it is too small to provide adequate error detection.
Option D: 16-bit checksum is the correct size used in IP headers for error detection.

1067. In....., the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (B) TDMA.

Exam Relevance: Wireless Communications, Telecommunications Engineering, Network Protocols

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: TDMA stands for Time Division Multiple Access, a method where multiple users share the same frequency channel by dividing the time into different intervals.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse TDMA with FDMA (Frequency Division Multiple Access), where users share the same channel by dividing the frequency into different bands.

Explanations: In TDMA, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time by dividing the time into different intervals. Each station is allocated a specific time slot to transmit data, ensuring that the bandwidth is shared efficiently among multiple users.

Option Analysis:

Option A: FDMA (Frequency Division Multiple Access) is incorrect because it divides the frequency into different bands, not time intervals.
Option B: TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access) is correct because it divides the time into different intervals for each station to use the channel.
Option C: CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is incorrect because it uses unique codes to distinguish between users, not time intervals.
Option D: None of the above is incorrect because TDMA is a valid and correct answer.

Mnemonic: Time Divides, Frequency Fades, Codes Confuse

1068. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Datalink Layer.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, CIW Network Specialist

Difficulty: Easy

Concept notes: A bridge operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. It is used to connect multiple network segments and filter traffic based on MAC addresses.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the functions of different OSI layers, particularly the Data Link layer with the Network layer.

Explanations: Bridges operate at the Data Link layer, which is responsible for physical addressing and network topology. They use MAC addresses to filter and forward frames between different network segments. This function is distinct from the Network layer, which handles logical addressing and routing.

Option Analysis:

Option A: The Application Layer is Layer 7 and deals with user applications and protocols, not network segmentation.
Option B: The Transport Layer is Layer 4 and is responsible for end-to-end communication, not for segmenting networks.
Option C: The Network Layer is Layer 3 and deals with logical addressing and routing, not physical addressing and filtering.
Option D: The Datalink Layer is Layer 2 and is responsible for physical addressing and network segmentation, which is where bridges operate.

1069. Which of these covers the largest area?

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (C) WAN.

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CISSP, CompTIA Network+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: WAN (Wide Area Network) covers the largest area among LAN (Local Area Network), PAN (Personal Area Network), and MAN (Metropolitan Area Network).

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the coverage areas of different network types, mistaking LAN or MAN for the largest.

Explanations: WANs are designed to connect devices over large geographical areas, such as different cities or countries. This makes WAN the network type with the largest coverage area. In contrast, LANs are limited to a small area like a home or office, PANs cover a very small area like within a person's reach, and MANs cover a larger area than LANs but smaller than WANs, typically a city or campus.

Option Analysis:

Option A: LAN covers a small area, such as a home or office.
Option B: PAN covers a very small area, such as within a person's reach.
Option C: WAN covers a large area, such as different cities or countries.
Option D: MAN covers a larger area than LAN but smaller than WAN, typically a city or campus.

Mnemonic: WAN: Wide Area Network, "W" for "Worldwide"

1070. What do you need to connect nodes on a newtwork

Correct Answer: Correct answer is: (D) Only (A) & (B).

Exam Relevance: CCNA, CompTIA Network+, A+

Difficulty: Moderate

Concept notes: Ethernet cables and Wi-Fi are common methods to connect nodes in a network.

Common Mistakes: Students may overlook the role of Wi-Fi in connecting nodes, assuming only physical cables are used.

Explanations: Ethernet cables are used to connect devices in a wired network, providing a stable and fast connection. Wi-Fi, on the other hand, allows wireless connectivity between devices, making it a versatile option for network nodes. USB ports are not typically used for connecting nodes in a network, as they are designed for peripheral devices and data transfer rather than network communication.

Option Analysis:

Option A: Ethernet cables are a valid method for connecting nodes in a network.
Option B: Wi-Fi is a valid method for connecting nodes in a network.
Option C: USB ports are not used for connecting nodes in a network.
Option D: This option correctly identifies Ethernet cables and Wi-Fi as valid methods for connecting nodes in a network.

Mnemonic: E-Wi for Ethernet and Wi-Fi

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Computer networking MCQ - Set 107

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