Full mock test 1

By | May 26, 2018

UGC NET Full Mock test

Question 1
Who is the author of `India Wins Freedom'?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
C
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 1 Explanation: 
Maulana Azad is considered one of the greatest Urdu writers of the 20th century. He has written many books including India Wins Freedom, Ghubar-e-Khatir, Tazkirah, Tarjumanul Quran, etc.
Question 2
Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament's resolution?
A
Governor of a State
B
Chief Election Commissioner
C
Comptroller and Auditor - General
D
Judge of a High Court
Question 2 Explanation: 
The Governor of a state can be removed from his or her position by the President of India without the Parliment's resolution. The President of the Republic of India is the head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. According to the Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the country is vested in the President and is exercised by President either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.
Question 3
Which state government has recently introduced third gender category in school exams?
A
Bihar
B
Odisha
C
West Bengal
D
None of the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
For the first time since the Supreme Court recognised transgender people as a third gender in 2014, as many as 18 students in Bihar have been allowed to appear for the Board exams conducted by the Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) under the third-gender category.
Question 4
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A
Indian Parliament is supreme.
B
The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
C
There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
D
There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Question 4 Explanation: 
In India, as inscribed in Preamble, the Constitution derives it powers from "We the people". So, we the people are sovereign, while we have given the supreme authority to Constitution, as the supreme law of the land. Parliament runs according to the laws given in the constitution
Question 5
Which one of the following option is wrong? A scientific research is:
A
Systematic
B
Intuitive
C
Controlled
D
Empirical
Question 6
Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ?
A
Pie diagram
B
Chorochromatic technique
C
Isopleth technique
D
Dot method
Question 6 Explanation: 
Chorochromatic maps can be simple or compound. In simple chorochromatic maps, single features with patchy occurrence are depicted (for example, to show the distribution of forest reserves or coal fields in a country). Compound chorochromatic maps on the other hand show phenomena in which types and categories can be recognized. Chorochromatic maps can be used to show different types of soil, rocks, vegetation, etc. For example, in a full vegetation map, all different kinds of vegetation are shown on the same map, using different symbols or shading patterns. Usually the classification resulting in the identification of the unit types shown on a compound chorochromatic map is qualitative, based on apparently discontinuous features. However, in certain cases (for example, soil and vegetation) the aggregate unit area characteristics form parts of a continuum. Cartographers should be aware that chorochromatic maps that display non-area-related phenomena like religion or language may cause the map reader to misinterpret the map. The map reader may assume that the size of the area is proportional to the number of people in the area with that qualitative characteristic. To avoid misleading the map user, the cartographer can add a diagram showing the actual numbers involved.
Question 7
Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
A
Single group experiment
B
Residual group experiment
C
Parallel-group experiment
D
Rational group experiment
Question 8
Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
B
Central University, Hyderabad
C
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
D
Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai
Question 9
Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
  1. It is an autonomous institution.
  2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
  3. It is located in Delhi.
  4. It has regional offices. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
1 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 10
Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?
A
Total dissolved solids
B
Coliform count
C
Dissolved oxygen
D
Density
Question 10 Explanation: 
The density of water is the weight of the water per its unit volume, which depends on the temperature of the water. The usual value used in calculations is 1 gram per milliliter (1 g/ml) or 1 gram per cubic centimeter (1 g/cm3). Coliform bacteria are present in the environment and feces of all warm-blooded animals and humans. Coliform bacteria are unlikely to cause illness. However, their presence in drinking water indicates that disease-causing organisms (pathogens) could be in the water system.
Question 11
Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?
A
Windows Vista
B
Android
C
Windows XP
D
All of the above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Examples of mobile device operating systems include Apple iOS, Google Android, Research in Motion's BlackBerry OS, Nokia's Symbian, Hewlett-Packard's webOS (formerly Palm OS) and Microsoft's Windows Phone OS. Some, such as Microsoft's Windows 8, function as both a traditional desktop OS and a mobile operating system.
Question 12
Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
A
Untreated sewage
B
Agriculture run-off
C
Unregulated small-scale industries
D
Religious practices
Question 13
Which of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching?
A
Structuring
B
Instructional variety
C
Questioning
D
Using student ideas and contribution
Question 13 Explanation: 
Based on the research conducted by T. Good and J. Brophy in 1987, there are five key behaviors that become the essential of effective teaching, they are lesson clarity, instructional variety, teacher task orientation, engagement in the learning process, and student success rate.  Let’s enjoy reading this writing.
  1. Lesson clarity is indicated when the teacher make the points of explanation clearly to students and give concept in step by step order.
  2. Instructional Variety means that the teacher uses the following way.  Using attention gaining device (for example begins with challenging question, visual or examples that must be different with previous lesson activity), showing enthusiasm (through eyes contact, voice, and gesture), varying model of presentation, using variety of reward and punishment, incorporate students idea participation in some aspects of instruction, and varies type of questions (e.g. match question to behavior and complexity of the lesson objective. Vary the complexity of lesson objectives in accord with the unit plan).
  3. Teacher task orientation refers to the allocation order of classroom time management. There some question teachers have in applying this key behavior. They are about how much time will teacher spend (for presentating, asking question, and encourage students to think independently), (organizing ifr teaching and getting students ready to learn), and (assessing learner performance). In this case, the teacher develop lesson plan that reflect the most relevant feature of the curriculum and select the most appropriate instructional model for the objective being taught.
  4. Engagement in learning process is key behavior that refers to the following indicators. (1) Elicit the behavior immediately after the instructional stimuli. (2) Provides opportunity for feedback in a non evaluative atmosphere. (3) Using individual and group activities. (4) Using meaningful verbal praise to get and keep students actively participating in the learning process. (5) Monitoring seatwork and check frequently the progress during independent practice.
  5. Students rate indicated with teacher who establishes unit and lesson content that reflects prior learning, ahow model of correct answer and how to attain it after first crude response is given, divides instructional stimuli into small chunk, plans transition to new material in easy to grasp steps, and varies the pace at which stimuli are presented.
  In other that, there are helping behaviors that can be used in combination to implement the key behavior. They are: using students ideas and contribution, structuring (comments of teacher to organize what will come and what have done), questioning (to attract students directly involved in material taught), Probing (teacher statement that encourage students to elaborate the argument or answer), and teacher affect (good face expression, gesture, voice intonation, and general movement of teacher in teaching). Adapted from: PETA course handout chapter 1 week 5
Question 14
Which of the following are statutory bodies?
  1. Election Commission of India
  2. University Grants Commission (UGC)
  3. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
  4. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1,2 and 3
D
1,3 and 4
Question 15
Which of the following are Central Universities?
  1. Pondicherry University
  2. Vishwa Bharati
  3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
  4. Kurukshetra University.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 3 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 4
Question 16
When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become
A
myths
B
reasons
C
experiences
D
convictions
Question 17
The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
A
Attracting student's attention in the classroom.
B
Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.
C
Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
D
Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Question 18
The science of communication control systems in society is called:  
A
Cybernetics
B
Information science
C
Super highway
D
Semiotics
Question 18 Explanation: 
There are many definitions of cybernetics and many individuals who have influenced the definition and direction of cybernetics. Norbert Wiener, a mathematician, engineer and social philosopher, coined the word "cybernetics" from the Greek word meaning "steersman." He defined it as the science of control and communication in the animal and the machine. Ampere, before him, wanted cybernetics to be the science of government. For philosopher Warren McCulloch, cybernetics was an experimental epistemology concerned with the communication within an observer and between the observer and his environment. Stafford Beer, a management consultant, defined cybernetics as the science of effective organization. Anthropologist Gregory Bateson noted that whereas previous sciences dealt with matter and energy, the new science of cybernetics focuses on form and pattern. For educational theorist Gordon Pask, cybernetics is the art of manipulating defensible metaphors, showing how they may be constructed and what can be inferred as a result of their existence.  

CYBERNETICS: DEFINITIONS AND DESCRIPTIONS

  1. "a science concerned with the study of systems of any nature which are capable of receiving, storing, and processing information so as to use it for control"-A.N. Kolmogorov
  2. "Cybernetique= the art of growing"--A.M. Ampere
  3. "the science of control and communication in the animal and the machine"-Norbert Wiener
  4. "the art of securing efficient operation"-L. Couffignal
  5. "the art of steersmanship"; "deals with all forms of behavior in so far as they are regular, or determinate, or reproducible"; "stands to the real machine-electronic, mechanical, neural, or economic-much as geometry stands to a real object in our terrestrial space"; "offers a method for the scientific treatment of the system in which complexity is outstanding and too important to be ignored"-W. Ross Ashby
  6. "a branch of mathematics dealing with problems of control, recursiveness, and information"-Gregory Bateson
  7. "the science of effective organization"-Stafford Beer
  8. "the art and science of manipulating defensible metaphors"-Gordon Pask
  9. "Should one name one central concept, a first principle, of cybernetics, it would be circularity."-Heinz von Foerster
  10. "a way of thinking"-Ernst von Glasersfeld
  11. "the science and art of understanding"-Humberto Maturana
  12. "Cybernetics: when I reflect on the dynamics of observed systems and on the dynamics of the observer-whence 'creative cybernetics': when I project the dynamics of a system I would like to observe"-from announcement of 1987 ASC conference in Urbana-Champaign, Illinois
  13. "the ability to cure all temporary truth of eternal triteness"-Herbert Brun
 
Question 19
The primary duty of the teacher is to
A
raise the intellectual standard of the students
B
improve the physical standard of the students
C
help all round development of the students
D
imbibe value system in the students
Question 20
The main characteristic of scientific research is:
A
empirical
B
theoretical
C
experimental
D
all of the above
Question 21
The Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India is
A
The Chief of the Army Staff
B
The Defence Minister
C
The Prime Minister
D
The President of India
Question 21 Explanation: 
The President of India serves as the formal Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, while actual control lies with the executive headed by the Prime Minister of India.
Question 22
Some of the following constraints are faced by first generation learners in college and university. Identify them.
  1. Sub-optimal command over English Language
  2. Divergences in pronunciation of words
  3. Not being pro-active in conversations
  4. Not having proper height and weight
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
C
(iii), (iv) and (i)
D
(iv), (i) and (ii)
Question 23
Most of the Universities in India are funded by
A
the Central Government
B
the State Governments
C
the University Grants Commission
D
Private bodies and Individuals
Question 24
Match the following activities:
List-I List-II
a) Print media p) Kuchipudi dance
(b) Electronic q) telegu media news paper
(c) Folk media r) Tele conferencing by IGNOU
(d) Mass media s) Street plays
A
(aq) (br) (cs) (dp)
B
(ar) (bp) (cq) (ds)
C
(aq) (br) (dp) (cs)
D
(aq) (br) (cp) (ds)
Question 25
Manisha is eleventh from either end of a row of girls. How many girls are there in that row?
A
19
B
20
C
21
D
22
Question 26
Kyoto Protocol is related to
A
Ozone depletion
B
Hazardous waste
C
Climate change
D
Nuclear energy
Question 26 Explanation: 
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring and (part two) it is extremely likely that human-made CO2 emissions have predominantly caused it. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in KyotoJapan on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February 2005. There are currently 192 parties (Canada withdrew effective December 2012) to the Protocol.
Question 27
Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
A
Sulphur di-oxide
B
Ozone
C
PAN
D
Nitrous oxide
Question 27 Explanation: 

Photochemical smog

  1. nitrogen oxides
  2. hydrocarbons and
  3. oxygen
interact chemically to produce powerful oxidants like ozone (O3) and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). These secondary pollutants are damaging to plant life and lead to the formation of photochemical smog. PAN is primarily responsible for the eye irritation.
Question 28
In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
A
Rwanda
B
Morocco
C
South Africa
D
Algeria
Question 29
In finalizing a thesis writing format which of the following would form part of supplementary pages?
A
Table of contents
B
Conclusions of the study
C
Bibliography and Appendices
D
List of tables and figures
Question 30
In a certain code RSDFRBMUG means SREESANTH, then how FIXING can be written in the same code?
A
EJWHPF
B
GHYHOF
C
EJWJMH
D
GHWJMH
Question 31
If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by
A
20%
B
30%
C
40%
D
50%
Question 32
If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is
A
Rectangle
B
Circle
C
Point
D
Triangle
Question 33
How much fund has been allocated to the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) for fiscal year 2017-18?
A
Rs. 353 crore
B
Rs. 323 crore
C
Rs. 343 crore
D
Rs. 333 crore
Question 34
Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
A
The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
B
The conclusion is based on causal relation.
C
The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
D
The conclusion is based on observation and experiment
Question 35
GDP of a country tries to measure
A
Annual output
B
Domestic price level
C
Annual growth rate
D
Domestic investment
Question 36
DAGMAR approach in marketing is used to measure:
A
consumer satisfaction
B
Public relations
C
Advertising results
D
Selling volume
Question 36 Explanation: 
Created in 1961 by Russell Colley, Defining Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results (DAGMAR), is a marketing tool for measuring the results of an advertising campaign. DAGMAR seeks to guide consumers through four phases, also known as the ACCA advertising formula. ACCA is an acronym for awareness, comprehension, conviction, and action. It also sets specific and measurable objectives to determine the overall success of the campaign.
Question 37
Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible. Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
A
(A) is false but, (R) is correct
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is correct but, (R) is false
Question 38
As per Union Budget 2017-18, the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) will be set up under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Who will be chairman of the proposed board?
A
Cabinet Secretary
B
Finance Secretary
C
Finance Minister
D
Governor of RBI
Question 39
As 513 is related to 8 and 344 is related to 7, in the same way 126 is related to
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 39 Explanation: 
8*8*8=512 1=513 7*7*7=343 1=344 and then we have 126 i.e 5*5*5=125 1=126
Question 40
A private school asks teachers to attend duties if necessary even during holidays. Management supports this action by saying that they were being paid for their holidays too. This situation refers to
A
Lack of professional standards
B
Lack of respect for professional rights of teachers
C
Lack of will on the part of teachers to refuse
D
None of the above
Question 41
The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
A
Osmania University
B
University of Pune
C
Annamalai University
D
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Question 42
Learning takes place when:
A
There is a match between `what' and `how' students learn
B
The teacher presents the content accurately
C
The learning experience is organized within a stipulated time
D
Teacher's focus is on completion of syllabus
Question 43
Read the following passage and answer the questions 43 to 48:
Consecutive prison terms for those convicted of more than one offence in a single trial are infrequent in India. When those who have attracted great public odium by the enormity of their crimes are found guilty, the judges are seen to have the option of awarding sentences that are `consecutive', to be undergone one after another as opposed to concurrently, where the longest jail term subsumes the shorter ones. On rare occasions, for example in the case of self-proclaimed godman Premananda in Tamil Nadu, two life sentences have been ordered to run consecutively. The Supreme Court has now provided clarity on the question of whether two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made to run one after another. It is basically irrational and anomalous, says the Constitution Bench. As life imprisonment is for the remainder of one's life, unless ended by remission or commutation, multiple life terms should be counted concurrently. Accordingly, judgments that run contrary to this principle have been overruled. Consecutive sentences are still permissible if one is a fixed term and the other is one of life, provided the term sentence is completed first and the life sentence begins later. Unbelievably lengthy prison sentences are not common in India, unlike in some jurisdictions in the West. However, most of these countries balance it with a robust system of probation or parole. On the other hand, the idea of releasing a prisoner under supervised probation after a part of the sentence has been served is still rare in India; both state and society expect convicts to be imprisoned for as long as possible. This highlights an issue that occasionally crops up in judicial discourse: the absence of sentencing guidelines in India. In theory, sentences can be deterrent, retributive, reformative or restorative. However, the present sentencing paradigm is judge-centric, leaving much to the court's discretion. Some believe this may be right because no two offences, or even offenders, are likely to be the same. Circumstances aggravating or mitigating), motive and nature of the crime are all taken into account by judges in sentencing. For heinous crimes, the ideas of deterrence and retribution inform judicial discretion, and hence the more popular verdicts are those that award condign punishment. Until sentencing guidelines are framed by the legislature or the superior judiciary, individual judges will have to carry the burden of awarding punishment that befits the crime. By holding that there shall be no consecutive life terms, the court has offered a ray of hope to even those locked away for life, even if it may not guarantee release. For, justice ultimately cannot be merely retributive.
What according to the passage both state and society expect?
A
the longest jail term subsumes the shorter ones
B
Consecutive prison terms for those convicted of more than one offence in a single trial should not be infrequent in India
C
the convicts should be imprisoned for as long as possible
D
None of the above
Question 44
Which among the following is not TRUE according to the passage given above?
A
one offence in a single trial are infrequent in India
B
the idea of releasing a prisoner under supervised probation after a part of the sentence has been served is still frequent in India
C
most of the countries balance it with a robust system of probation or parole
D
None of the above
Question 45
How according to the passage two life sentences can be run consecutively?
A
two or more sentences of life imprisonment cannot be made to run one after another
B
two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made together
C
two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made to run one after another
D
All of the above
Question 46
Which of the following would be a suitable title of the passage?
A
Consecutive sentences
B
Many lives in one jail term
C
consecutive jail term
D
Supreme Court
Question 47
Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ``odium''?
A
provoked
B
demonstrative
C
detestation
D
regard
Question 48
Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ``subsumes''?
A
fascinate
B
allure
C
exclude
D
palpation
Question 49
Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 49 to 50: Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006?
A
ab
B
ce
C
cd
D
ef
Question 50
Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007?
A
bdf
B
acf
C
bed
D
ace
There are 50 questions to complete.
Please report wrong answer

16 thoughts on “Full mock test 1

  1. tamanna

    hello sir.. i think answer of question is wrong . because DAGMAR approach drelated to Advertisment and ans for que 30 is also wrong according to me.
    thanks

    Reply
  2. tamanna

    hello sir.. i think answer of question is wrong . because DAGMAR approach drelated to Advertisment and ans for que 30 is also wrong according to me.
    thanks

    Reply
  3. Ranjit Rajbanshi

    Plz sir,give me correct answer with correct explain. Question no 39.

    Reply
    1. Libz

      It’s
      8*8*8=512 1=513
      7*7*7=343 1=344
      and then we have 126 i.e 5*5*5=125 1=126
      thus option 5 is the ans

      Reply
  4. Ranjit Rajbanshi

    Plz sir,give me correct answer with correct explain. Question no 39.

    Reply
  5. Priyanka Sahu

    Q2. Governor of state can be removed by president without parliament’s resolution is the right answer not the judge of high courr

    Reply
  6. Manish Kashyap

    Two of the options in Question are same – b and d

    Reply
  7. Ariba khan

    I thing que 30 is wrong… May be the correct ans is option (b)…

    Reply
  8. Pawan sohi

    Check question33 . Two options are same 333 score. M selected b option bt direct 4th. Both are same

    Reply

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